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Preferably for any number of dimensions (R^n)

2007-06-17 13:53:12 · 3 answers · asked by nemahknatut88 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

This is actually true in any Hilbert space. By subtracting we see that u*(v-w)=0 for all u. In particular, let u=v-w to find that 0=(v-w)*(v-w)=||v-w||^2. Thus, the distance between v and w is 0, so v=w.

2007-06-17 13:59:51 · answer #1 · answered by mathematician 7 · 1 0

Suppose ∀u, = . Then ∀u, = - = 0. So in particular, this holds for u=v-w -- i.e. = 0. This means that v-w=0, so v=w. Q.E.D.

2007-06-17 14:00:27 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 1 0

Let u, v, and w be vectors in R^n. Hence,
u = u1, u2, u3, ..., un
v = v1, v2, v3, ..., vn
w = w1, w2, w3, ..., wn
From the definition of the direct product of two vectors,
u dot v = u1 * v1, u2 * v2, u3 * v3, ..., un * vn
u dot w = u1 * w1, u2 * w2, u3 * w3, ..., un * wn
Let u dot v = u dot w for all u; that is,
u1 * v1, u2 * v2, u3 * v3, ..., un * vn = u1 * w1, u2 * w2, u3 * w3, ..., un * wn
Hence,
u1 * v1 = u1 * w1, u2 * v2 = u2 * w2, u3 * v3 = u3 * w3, ..., un * vn = un * wn
By some law of multiplication or division, it must follow that
v1 = w1, v2 = w2, v3 = w3, ..., vn = wn.
Therefore, v = w.

2007-06-17 14:07:45 · answer #3 · answered by Dan 3 · 0 1

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