English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Why objects of different configurations drop at different rates ?(due to air resistance), whats the relationship between this question and above one?

I forgot the G=mg, i dont know how to explain, thank you.

What is the earth’s elliptical orbit?
How the circulatory system works

2007-06-17 09:35:58 · 4 answers · asked by aipingd 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

The acceleration of gravity is the same for all objects. This means that the mass is not important. The shape may enter into the rate of fall if the air resistance comes into effect. An object with a lot of surface area will encounter more air resistance and will reach "free fall" at a lower velocity.

I demonstrate this each year to my classes by using a text book and a piece of paper. When I drop them the book hits the floor first and the paper floats down slower. Then I crumple the paper into a tight ball and drop both items again. This time they both land at the same time because the paper encounters less air resistance. Another way to remove air resistance is to drop the book and paper with the paper under the book. They both land at the same time because the mass of them combined is not effected by the air resistance. You can also drop them together with the paper on top of the book and they will fall at the same time. This is because the book pushes the air away and it does not reach the paper.

2007-06-17 09:39:32 · answer #1 · answered by physandchemteach 7 · 0 0

According to Galileo, yes. It has been proven, due to the acceleration of -9.8m/s of gravity acting upon an object at free fall. Any object of any mass dropped simultaneously at same height will fall at the same time if there are no other forces such as air resistance. Eg, A bullet shot from a gun in an open field will land on the ground at the same time as a bullet dropped from the same height. If there is no other forces acting upon it other than gravity.

2016-05-18 00:13:55 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

The **postulated** Equivalence Principle (EP): All local bodies vacuum free fall along identical (parallel) minmum action trajectories regardless of chemical composition or mass configuration." If this is true then inertial mass F = ma holding stuff back is fundamentally indistinguishable from gravitational mass F = GmM/r^2 pulling it in.

The EP was postulated by Galileo, Newton, and Einstein (metric gravitation). One can write wholly valid gravitation theory without the EP - affine (Einstein-Cartan), teleparallel (Weitzenböck), and noncommutative (Connes) gravitation. Present two bodies that reproducibly violate the EP and General Relativity is falsfified at the founding postulate level.

Every conserved observable in physics arises from a symmetry in physics, and vice-versa. A list ot symmetries (easy to write) then gives a list of all unique properties to test.

http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#b5
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#b1

EVERYTHING examined obeys the EP to the limits of experimental error. A neutron star core might be strange matter, pion condensate, lambda hyperon, delta isobar, or free quark matter. Gravitationally hyper-bound (~30% of dissociated rest mass), hyper-spinning (~20% of lightspeed at equator), hyper-magnetic (10^8 tesla), hyper-dense (4-9x10^14 g/cm^3), superconducting neutronium as binary pulsar PSR J0737-3039A/B all falls consistent with the EP.

http://arxiv.org/abs/astro-ph/0609417

Curiously, nobody knows if compositionally identical left and right hands or left and right shoes obey the EP. Nobody has ever looked. There is no reason they should obey the EP and good reasons they should not - all validated gravitation theories other than metric gravitation. Who bells the cat?

http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/qz4.pdf
Technicalities; difficult EP parity violation test
http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2
Simple EP parity violation test

Resistance to translation through a medium appears as Stoke's law and the

Google
"ballistic coefficient" 58,200 hits

Also,

HK Moffat, "Six lectures on general fluid dynamics and two on hydromagnetic dynamo theory," pp. 149-234 in R Balian & J-L Peube (eds), "Fluid Dynamics" (Gordon and Breach, 1977)
http://www.igf.fuw.edu.pl/KB/HKM/PDF/HKM_027_s.pdf
3.5 megabytes
p. 175-176 (pdf p. 25-27) calculation of the chiral case.

2007-06-17 10:11:06 · answer #3 · answered by Uncle Al 5 · 0 0

F=mg.
a=F/m=mg/m=g, same for any mass/weight

2007-06-17 11:13:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers