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Norms and values are constantly re-evaluated. And norms and values are particular to societies. Now, if members of a society use substances that alter their intellectual and emotional capacities, then what becomes of these norms and values? Are they becoming less humane somehow?

Note: I do not wish to know whether or not drug use should be tolerated. I live in Belgium, near to The Netherlands, and I personally enjoy the liberal drug policy.

This is indeed a moral question: Is a society of which its members use mind-altering drugs "morally' inferior? I could not deny this. It's about how to use technological advancement virtuously as a society.
I hope you can figure it out.

2007-06-17 01:02:37 · 14 answers · asked by Johannes 2 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

frosty_taz and zeroambition both made some very interesting remarks. I think each point of view is a significant possibility.
1. Drug use changes morals, and changes thereby the building bricks of a society,
2. but is it changing into something better or worse than before?

Now the question remains: How can (1) and (2) be combined? How should we evaluate this change?

2007-06-17 01:31:06 · update #1

14 answers

Firstly, I do not that think that it is possible to construct a sort of utilitarian view of morality. I don't think that different moralities can be measured and valued. Morals to me, seem to change to fit the circumstances people face, so as technology changes and makes say..life easier, morality which says all life is precious can become more prevalent. I hope not to offend by saying that in the past if a disabled child were cast aside it was necessity verbalised perhaps in a strength is good morality. Nowadays that is not the case, but morally I do not think previous generations can be thought of as being wrong. So my view is No morality is inferior, superior. Regarding mind altering drugs, it perhaps may be beneficial in seeing societies current state from a "distance", it may also be the case that society in the future moves towards a more pro drug stance, in which case morality may change to be in line with this. Drugs however can affect people in very adverse ways, I believe they are only suitable for certain types of people, theres no doubt that many people do benefit from drug use (Aldous Huxley) however the majority or what is portrayed in the media as the majority seem to suffer. Its a good question and it would take a long time for me to think about, but I enjoy writing things down. Thanks, David.

2007-06-17 02:17:04 · answer #1 · answered by David D 2 · 2 0

It depends on your definition of "morally inferior" . . . in many countries, alcohol is widely accepted and there is little stigma attached to it, but drugs such as marijuana or mescaline are frowned upon. Apart from tradition, however, what really makes one person moral and the other immoral? If society judges, then the norm of morality is what defines the morality of an action. If you judge morality by some other terms than consensus, then this may not be the case.

I have yet to see any drug which genuinely and permanently improves intellectual and emotional capacities. You may argue that psychedelic drugs may, but the effect does not seem to last enough to make a permanent improvement.

2007-06-17 01:31:33 · answer #2 · answered by Runa 7 · 1 0

No, the same problems are among people are all over the world. Its just that some approach them in different ways to others - illicit drugs being an example. Success for a society should not be based upon whether that society is inherently "immoral" or not. It is conditional upon the support and communication structures which are set up that promote people to deal with their problems effectively by seeking help within the local community - without any beliefs or judgment being enforced upon them. This puts the focus on the individuals to unite to solve their problems in a practical way rather than rely on the quality of their inherent "morality" which inevitably becomes something that is dictated to them - and is ultimatley derived from externally imposed dogmatic belief systems which focus on human inferiority in the face of a higher being.

It does not seem that Illicit drugs are the answer to our problems in modern society - they focus too much on short term high rather than long term sanity, are illegal, physically harmful, can cause violent behaviour, delusion, and their addictive qualities promote theft.

Drug dependency is an example of the slave mentality that most people have when it comes to their problems in life.

2007-06-17 01:43:20 · answer #3 · answered by driving_blindly 4 · 2 0

you are assuming that the non-use of drugs is a defacto superior moral state of being. If you are to consider mind altering drugs as a form of technology ( you dont have to but you could) and an altered mental state as a different state rather than an inferior state then you could easily equate drug use with watching a sitcom for entertainment. ( I know this brings up the morality of sitcoms which is never good) or any other purely-for-entertainment use of technology. Most early religions used drugs to get closer to "God", it is only recently that we have stop seeing hallucinogens in particular as holy.

2007-06-17 01:16:23 · answer #4 · answered by zeroambition 3 · 2 0

No, this society would not be morally inferior. Several tribes of the Native American Nation used mind-altering drugs and this is a society that is fair to both its people and the world around them.

2007-06-17 07:18:47 · answer #5 · answered by Michelle 4 · 1 0

Johannes, I think you have your own answer already-and it is yes. Outside of a country close to you, the only other organised groups who participate in such behavior are self-depreciating cults.
Anything that impairs judgment-be it chemical, alcoholic etc. has an irrefutable negative effect on performance (in every field!). Over time, even the casual use of such substances degrades the tools we use to excel or even function-you sure have seen this. Any society that permits/encourages it's own foundations (the population) an opportunity of self destruction cannot continue to grow healthy. Advances in all fields decrease, education becomes more accessible at the expense of ability, and more than anything else-there is a genuine brain-drain of out-migration and emigration from the country that doesn't get replaced in the long term.

Hope this helped in some way!
Shane

2007-06-17 01:13:32 · answer #6 · answered by frosty_taz 2 · 2 1

Surely inferior as evidence heavily throughout the world. In USA, because its illegal and being watch carefully, they still remain the strongest nation in the world along with UK, and other aligned Bible-centered Christian dominated nations.
Historically the evidence of inferiority in the nations dominantly using drugs is strong. Scientifically it is also and Philosophically they don't produce objective thinkers that becomes great philosophers like the USA.

2007-06-17 01:37:45 · answer #7 · answered by periclesundag 4 · 0 2

I don't think that in itself it has anything to do with morality. But I reckon using mind-altering drugs in the belief that it will provide an experience one cannot have otherwise,only prevents one developing the mind as one can without them. So ultimately it diminishes one's experience rather than enhancing it.

2007-06-17 01:10:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Well there are people who use drugs to prevent future leaders to occur. And new definitions to words are given to accomplish the goals of the antisocial personality.

2007-06-17 01:11:05 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Why do you decide on for something criminal that alters your strategies state, and don't say it would not with the aid of fact marijuana does try this? How can marijuana be while in comparison with cigarettes that don't influence your physique of strategies?

2016-11-25 02:46:07 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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