1)I have emphasized that a magnetic field can only be measured through the magnetic force acting upon a moving charged particle. Yet the commonest way to measure the field is means of the compass. How are the statements consistent with each other?
2007-06-14 19:07:22 · 5 answers · asked by zubair y 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Study the reference and draw your answer from there.
2007-06-14 19:16:17 · answer #1 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think they are. The charged particle must be in motion to have a reaction with a magnetic field, a compass needle needs needs only the freedom to rotate.
2007-06-18 22:31:36 · answer #2 · answered by johnandeileen2000 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Lets see, could the electrons (charged particles) in the compass needle be moving?
BTW, I get 2 points even if I'm wrong (but I'm not)
2007-06-15 04:55:59 · answer #3 · answered by tinkertailorcandlestickmaker 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
compass needle itself a magnet whose magnetic field is due to moving electrons in their atomic orbits( according to classical physics) and they are moving charge particles .according to quantum mechanics this due to their intrinsic property (quite complex phenomenon)
2007-06-19 11:58:25 · answer #4 · answered by wasif 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are not receiving a measurement from the compass if you are what is it?
2007-06-15 02:12:21 · answer #5 · answered by grainy33 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋