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Major League Baseball

2007-06-14 09:20:39 · 13 answers · asked by phantomswine 2 in Sports Baseball

13 answers

GB == ((difference in wins) + (difference in losses)) / 2

using absolute values for the two differentials (we only care about the size of the separation, not the direction).

Think of it this way: two teams are involved in every game, so the outcome is worth 1/2 game to each team.

It may seem a little weird, but it's just bookkeeping.

2007-06-14 09:24:18 · answer #1 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 2 0

they calculate total games back by taking the number on wins and losses of each team example if one team is 32-10 and another is 28-12 then this team is 3 games back because they have 4 less wins and 2 more losses so as you can see they take the number of losses that a teams has and wins to determine how many games back a team is.

2007-06-14 09:30:29 · answer #2 · answered by Brandon L 1 · 0 0

If a team has played one more game than the Division leader and it lost that game but otherwise has the same record (say they are 2 W - 3L and the Div. leader is 2W - 2L), they would be considered .5 GB...then it is up to the Division leader to win the game ( and be 3-2) it has yet to play to make it 1 GB ... but if they lose that game (end up 2-3, just like the other team), then both teams would end up being tied for first.

2007-06-14 09:25:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

each game won is plus a half game and each loss is minus a half game....so lets say a team A has a record (10-2) and team B is (11-1)..both teams played 12 games team B has one more win (+1/2 game) and team A has one more loss (-1/2 game)....so team A is one game behind team B....in order to catch up team A would have to win a game while team B loses a game....


i think its also a way to put a number a a division lead when one team has played more games than another team

2007-06-14 09:46:30 · answer #4 · answered by someguy 2 · 1 0

If you haven't played the same number of games as another team has, say you're 1-1, but the other team is 1-0, you would be 0.5 games back. But if the other team loses the next game, then you're both tied. Catching up 1 full game means you win AND the other team loses. If just either you win or just he loses, then you only catch up 0.5 game. Yeah, it's somewhat confusing, but after a while, you'll get it.

2007-06-14 09:30:21 · answer #5 · answered by athleticsfan12 4 · 2 0

If a team is 10-10 and the next best record is 10-11. They are .5 games back. All that comes into play.

2007-06-14 09:23:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The basic idea of "games behind" is how many times you'd have to beat the first-place team to tie them. If you're 10-5 while the first-place team is 11-5, beating them once would put you solidly in front. If you could beat them "half a time", you'd both be 5.5 games over .500 (virtual tie).

Does that help? The previous answers give all the details of calculation.

2007-06-14 09:38:12 · answer #7 · answered by norcekri 7 · 0 0

if a team has played more games than the the other team, and they have different amounts of losses, then it' become .5 games lead. as for the first part. if team have played the same amount of games, you just take the number of wins each team has, and subtract from the leader. that then becomes the number of games back a team is.

2007-06-14 09:25:49 · answer #8 · answered by big_old_tom 4 · 0 0

I follow games back by looking at the loss column. game in the loss column for every game the one team more than the other team. For example.

TEAM X 22 16
TEAM Z 20 16 GB 2



TEAM Z is 2 games back. even tho they are tried in the loss
column But TEAM has played 2 more games than TEAM Z

2007-06-14 09:46:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

None of you addressed the case where the second place team has say 3 less wins but fewer losses. The websites for this have it all wrong. See Basic math.com ----nitwits.

2015-06-28 17:07:01 · answer #10 · answered by mlbkdog 1 · 0 0

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