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8 answers

5

2007-06-14 06:37:51 · answer #1 · answered by Kelso 2 · 0 0

Well a random sampling of 50 people is rather small to GUARANTEE a certain value, but probability states that the MOST LIKELY value would be 5 people. In addition, you asked how many "defects" would be found, not how many people with defects will be found. This is just being technical, but there is an additional variable that is unaccounted for because anyone in that 10% may have more than just one genetic defect.

2007-06-14 13:40:49 · answer #2 · answered by C-Wryte 3 · 2 0

10% of 50 =
10/100 * 50= 5

However, I would not expect to find EXACTLY 5 people with the genetic defect, but ABOUT 5 people.

2007-06-14 13:48:45 · answer #3 · answered by math guy 6 · 0 0

5 people will have defects based on this logic, HOWEVER, you cannot determine the number of actual DEFECTS because the unknown variable is how many defects each of these 5 people have a piece. A person could have MULTIPLE defects or just one...so in reality, you cannot correctly answer this question....

2007-06-14 13:40:08 · answer #4 · answered by LittleBarb 7 · 1 0

The answer of "5" is an average. Each time you sample the population, you will get a different number, and they will fall into a normal distribution with the mean at 5. You cannot absolutely say how many you will find if you sample only once.

2007-06-14 13:40:41 · answer #5 · answered by hcbiochem 7 · 2 0

5: because 50 divided into 10 is 5.

2007-06-14 13:46:22 · answer #6 · answered by 1 2 · 0 0

10% * 50 people = 5 people

2007-06-14 13:38:11 · answer #7 · answered by yeeeehaw 5 · 0 0

Not enough information to answer, we need to know how many genetic defects are in the pool. Is it only one defect or numerous defects per person. Are they interdependent?

2007-06-14 13:43:29 · answer #8 · answered by DonPedro 4 · 0 0

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