This is a problem, because the English aren't really English. I know that makes no sense, but if you take a look at history it certainly does. The earliest English are today generally referred to as Britons. Unfortunately after they were conquered and then abandoned by the Romans, they were gradually driven westward by the Saxon invaders, made up of Angles, Saxons and Jutes. (this is where the story of King Arthur comes in, he was fighting for the Britons and against the Saxon invaders, who were heathens, that is, non-Christians). So, one could argue that the peoples who had lived in "England" before and during the Roman occupation are now driven west and the true Britons are the Welsh and those in Cornwall (they still speak Welsh).
However, now the Angles and Saxons and Jutes occupy what becomes known as England, the land of the Angles. Are they the first and pure Englishmen? Because if they are, then the pure Englishman is really of German extraction, like the Angles and Saxons. Oh, it does become complicated, but that is the story of history.
Now, if you really want to have fun, add William the Conqueror's invasion of 1066, and now the English are suddenly French, and they won't speak English at court for another couple hundred years!
Isn't history grand? Ya gotta love it!
2007-06-14 05:00:24
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answer #1
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answered by John B 7
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Hello dear!
Definitely, not the royal family, since we can find where they are coming from!
I suppose the people on the mountainous regions. They were in England when tribes and Empires were attacking them and to save themselves were moving inwards!
Regarding myself, I am pure: GreekVenetianPadovaIonianCretan......
Who knows?
2007-06-14 12:11:12
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answer #2
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answered by soubassakis 6
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Vague; by that do you mean by bloodline, because in that case no one, or do you mean by character, because in that case the answer is Phil Vickery.
2007-06-14 12:18:55
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answer #3
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answered by Prop Forward 3
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