He'd been shooting 3 free throws and perhaps tie the game,
it was an obvious foul by Bowen slapping Lebron's back
Last year's finals Dwayne Wade barely got "touched" and the referees still call a foul on him. makes me think the finals are set up. Mavs were a much better team, no offense
2007-06-12 17:04:58 · 13 answers · asked by sonriente 1 in Sports ➔ Basketball
1. He wasn't shooting when Bowen touched him, so he would only have gotten two f/t chances.
2. He wouldn't even have made both of them.
2007-06-12 17:24:07 · answer #1 · answered by Alice K 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
in line with danger he could have made the huge open shot fella, I propose he even have been given fouled however the officers have been giving the sport to Cleveland all night and that they did no longer call that one and you *****? i'm no longer a Spurs fan or perhaps I observed that the officiating grew to become into undesirable, the two strategies, however the secret's that the officers permit Cleveland returned in the sport by utilizing no longer calling huge Z's repeated over-the-returned fouls, or Daniel Gibson many times fouling Tony Parker, or any of Sasha Pavlovic's 13 travels (i'm no longer kidding the two, he traveled 13 cases in the sport, as quickly as he traveled thrice in one posession). in line with danger you may ask why Lebron, the subsequent MJ the 2nd coming, and all of that did no longer come via. i grew to become right into a Witness to a choke pastime. How approximately you?
2016-10-09 02:33:53 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Wade call was an exception, but you'll notice that referees very, very rarely call fouls or penalties of any kind, in any sport, in the final seconds. That's just the way it is. No ref wants to make a bad call to decide a game, so they usually go for the no-call at the end. It's unfortunate.
2007-06-12 17:09:57 · answer #3 · answered by Tut Uncommon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it wouldn't have bee 3 free throws...two...too obvious he got fouled before he was taking the shot...his motion wasn't starting...two free throws and they would have to foul someone on the SPurs
2007-06-12 17:11:39 · answer #4 · answered by Farce 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because the refs want to make sure that San Antonio wins and become the next NBA dynasty.
I agree, Mavs got cheated last year too!
2007-06-12 17:10:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
he did get fouled and he didn't get the call because the officials swallow there whistle and dint call anything because they dint want to jeopardize the game but in this case it did 4 the cavs
2007-06-12 17:18:48 · answer #6 · answered by joey 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
When you compare it to last years Finals, you have a very good point.
2007-06-12 17:13:46 · answer #7 · answered by Tee W 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You can't get a foul if there was no foul....Go Spurs!
2007-06-12 17:13:49 · answer #8 · answered by jmtate88 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because no matterhow you look at it, The Spurs were going to win anywany!!!!!! I Love It!!!
2007-06-12 17:13:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Spurs pay David Stern, who pays referees. They want to be known as a DYNASTY. That costs money. But they will all make money.
Cleveland is in the crapper. Lame NBA.
2007-06-12 17:09:28 · answer #10 · answered by Joe Bonarman 2 · 3⤊ 3⤋