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Explain why it is possible to say that we really don't need to have a rule for subtraction of signed numbers. (This involves using the additive inverse.)

2007-06-11 17:38:42 · 2 answers · asked by DoWHATiDO 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

If subtraction is defined by using the additive inverse [ 6 - 2 means 6 + -2], then the question answers itself. So how is subtraction defined in your class? a - b means a + (-b)? So you get the classic "add the opposite" rule.

2007-06-11 17:44:37 · answer #1 · answered by Philo 7 · 0 0

because we could use our brains and realize its not that hard to do it logically.

2007-06-12 00:42:56 · answer #2 · answered by Coventry_ 1 · 0 0

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