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i am claimin monies back from a bank in the form of charges. part of the claim is interest on contractual rate.i was quoted this in a email "It is trite law that a claim for interest at 28.7% is bound to file" can you please explain to me what this means.

2007-06-11 08:58:20 · 8 answers · asked by adam1976brown 1 in Business & Finance Personal Finance

8 answers

Trite law is a law which is obvious and common place. Don't be put off by that description. The email writer is just "bigging themselves up" and it may or may not be correct. It is not what they think that matters. Trite law is not a branch of law just basic principles.

2007-06-11 09:09:25 · answer #1 · answered by bollinger1960 2 · 0 0

Define Trite

2016-10-07 13:00:45 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

What Is Trite

2016-12-18 19:20:00 · answer #3 · answered by merryman 4 · 0 0

Nearly all of the elements of Sharia Law can be traced to traditional laws of ancient Arabs and other Eastern folks including the Jews. While the Jews no longer stone people to death or cut off the hands of thieves, Muslims find it fit to continue those old traditions when in fact Mohammad condemned most of those behaviors.

2016-03-19 02:58:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For the best answers, search on this site https://shorturl.im/ax1No

Dear Amanda Don't consider answers from Non-Muslims here. Since u want to learn Islam, then seek answers from Muslims here. @Musab is right. By this way u can clear misunderstandings about Islam. Sharia Law contains those points which are mentioned in Quran & Hadees. Hadees is nothing but detailed explanation of Quran itself. This law consider permitted & prohibited things of Islam. If u follow sharia then it becomes legal in Islam & if u don't follow sharia then it becomes illegal in Islam. Just like every country has a law to follow within the boundaries of that country. Like wise Islam also has a law to follow which comes within the boundaries of Islam. If any one claims to be a Muslim, then that person must follow the sharia of Islam. For example.. A valid Islamic marriage has, Islamic marriage conducted by an Imam either in a mosque or a house in the presence of two witnesses and with the consent of the guardian of the bride (if available). The consent of the woman's guardian is needed at the time of the marriage along with the two witnesses. This is sharia law. If you were to ask: "is every single shariah law unchangeable"? We say that shariah law is constituted in two segments: * 1) Laws which are fixed for certain crimes such as adultery, murder, theft etc * 2) Laws which are not fixed and are executed based up liaising between individual and society such as drinking wine etc. These laws or punishments are initiated by religious scholars or supreme leader who can choose to implement various methods for such actions such as either to lash them, or expel them from country or imprison them etc Now the question is asked whether these laws are barbaric or not? Barbaric is truly a conformist word where they emulate certain punishments of the old and replicate them in modern day society to symbolize how cruel they were for mankind. However, if one was to look at modern day warfare, it is evident in their usage of artillery being more barbaric and leaving no mercy at all for the enemy. Countries are accumulating atomic warheads, chemical arsenal etc for their so called "peace" missions whereas they are causing more havoc, destruction, and cruelty to people than others.

2016-04-10 08:09:08 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

1

2017-02-28 11:33:20 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

"bound to file" ? you means "bound to fail" ?

Looks to me like some-one (who can't spell) has mixed up a claim for Repayment of Charges with Interest at 28% with a claim for Interest on the Repayments (you can only get 8%).

For example - say, two years ago, you were charged £100. You didn't pay for a year, so they added 28.7% Interest = £128.7. You them paid them (a year ago).

You can reclaim the £128.7 PLUS you get 8% per year Interest starting from when you paid them. You paid them a year ago, so you get one years worth of 8% = £10.29 ... TOTAL claim is thus £138.99

(The 8% is laid down by law .. you want your charges back, you have to follow the law .. )

2007-06-11 19:30:38 · answer #7 · answered by Steve B 7 · 0 1

Are you sure they did not have a misprint or are trying to bamboozle you, I've heard of "tort" in law but not 'trite'
If its any help 'tort' is a wrongful act other than breach of contract, for which a civil action for damages may be brought.
Or that may have nothing whatsoever to do with your case, in which case.........my apologies!

2007-06-11 09:14:52 · answer #8 · answered by anthony m 2 · 0 0

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