2007-06-11 00:33:15 · 13 answers · asked by hero 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Actually, he was not.
Read "The merchant of Venice" very carefully
2007-06-11 00:35:21 · answer #1 · answered by Chief BaggageSmasher 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
See : "Was Shakspeare antisemitic?" : http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070423030707AAvaJhl
And : "Q. Was Shakespeare anti-Semitic?" : http://shakespeare.about.com/od/faqshakespeareslife/f/antiSemitic.htm
"Thus, the Elizabethan people knew little about Jews, other than the false information handed down through years of propaganda."
"Some believe that Shakespeare rises above the bigotry of the day, pleading for religious tolerance through Shylock's famous speech in Act 3:"
"However, most conclude that The Merchant of Venice is as racist as any of the works by Shakespeare's contemporaries:"
" ""Hath not a Jew eyes", etc. is the only place where Shakespeare seems to intend arousing the least sympathy for the usurer. In all other scenes his meanness and avarice are dwelt upon almost to the exclusion of his justifiable resentment at the insults to his race. He hates Antonio more for spoiling his business than for reviling his religion; and he would gladly see his only child dead before him if he might regain his ducats. There seems to be no reason to believe that Shakespeare intended any rebuke to the Jew-hating spirit of the time." ("An index to the works of Shakspere giving references", Evangeline M. O'Connor, 324)"
2007-06-11 07:56:32 · answer #2 · answered by Erik Van Thienen 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
People admire him, because he was the greatest English writer in history. How can you say he was anti-Semitic? That is ridiculous, but even if he was, it would not make him any less brillliant. I am part-Jewish, but I am objective. Your standards for judging literature are evidently more emotional than reasonable. I suggest that you read more of both Shakespeare and Hitler.
2007-06-11 09:25:56 · answer #3 · answered by miyuki & kyojin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, he wasn't.
Any anti-semitism that Shakespeare demonstrates in his works are reflective of his time; Hitler's hatreds were of an entirely different nature having more to do with seeking to blame his problems and failures on others.
2007-06-11 09:29:39 · answer #4 · answered by psyop6 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he wasn't anti-Semetic just like Hitler. Although the Merchant of Venice is often stated as being anti-Semetic. Shakespeare was not into genocide.
Good Luck!!!
2007-06-11 12:51:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Shakepeare was a poet and play writer who just mirrored prejudices of the time. Hitler was obsessed with completely wiping out their ethnic group. There is a difference between common prejudices and obsessed hatred with power to do the unthinkable.
Everyone doesn't like something but it doesn't get to the point of trying to kill until its completely gone.
2007-06-11 07:37:20 · answer #6 · answered by Tapestry6 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Shakespear was a christian and in his society in those days it was perfectly normal to be anti-semitic.
But to compare his anti-semitism with Hitler's is nonsensical.
2007-06-12 00:33:28 · answer #7 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
People can write beautiful things despite having a fallen nature. And I'm not sure he was anti-Semetic.
2007-06-11 07:35:42 · answer #8 · answered by mwrc09 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read Shakespeare....
Read Mein Kampf....
Find a few differences.....
2007-06-11 13:35:54 · answer #9 · answered by Cabal 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I will answer your question with another.
Why do people bother to answer hero's questions as he is a kn*b? The questions are obviously designed to wind people up.
2007-06-11 07:45:29 · answer #10 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋