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Your chance of landing blue is 20%

So what is your chance if spin twice? Three times?

Five times?

How do you calculate that stuff?

2007-06-10 16:48:57 · 5 answers · asked by roostershine 4 in Science & Mathematics Other - Science

Sorry,:

I was thinking more like landing blue just at least ONCE.

2007-06-10 17:06:02 · update #1

Nope.

I know that spinning a wheel twice is not the same total probability as spinning it just once.

If I roll a dice three times and you only roll it once. I have a greater chance of getting at least one "six" than you do.

And you would loose money if you bet against me like that repeatedly.

2007-06-10 17:09:43 · update #2

I know the chance doesn't decrease.

I know it increases the more times you get to "spin".

If I spin 500 times I know my chance of hitting blue at least once is very very VERY high. And I also know that it cannot be exactly 100%.

20% spin. Do it five times. Does NOT = a guarantee that you will hit blue at least once. But I know the chance goes up.

2007-06-10 17:15:41 · update #3

Okay all you remedial jokers, I reasked the question and I think I can gat at it now.

I spin once. :80% we get no blue.
I spin twice: 80/100 chance loose is cut by 80/100 again

0.8 noblue cut by 0.8 noblue again
thus:
0.8 X 0.8 = 0.64 chance Loose-your-color

spin total three?

0.64 X 0.8 = 0.512 noblue notargetColor

four?
0.512 X 0.8 = 0.496 "no mas"

so I get
onespin=
20% chance blue

twospin=
36% chance blue (total chance blue at least once)

threespin=
48.8% chance blue

fourspin=
50.4% chance blue

I may have screwed up the numbCrunching a bit along the way

but i think I'm onto it. and I'm just going to punch up some of them to see if I can get ecchoed a bunch

2007-06-10 19:27:40 · update #4

5 answers

You take the product of all the independent probabilities. The chance of getting blue twice in a row is 0.2*0.2 = 0.04, or 4%. The chance of getting blue three times in a row is 0.2*0.2*0.2 = 0.2^3 = 0.008 or 0.8%. For five in a row, it's 0.2^5 = 0.00032 or 0.032%.

If you mean the odds of getting blue at least once among multiple spins, you are correct that the way to do it is instead take the product of the probability of not spinning blue at all, and subtracting it from 1. As you said, if you spin twice, the odds of not getting blue at all are 0.8*0.8 = 0.64, and 1 - 0.64 = 0.36, a 36% chance of not hitting blue.

2007-06-10 16:53:52 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0 0

Probability is calculated by dividing the number of times the activity is done by the number of possible outcomes. So. with the color wheel the probability (chance) of landing on blue is 1/5 or .2 which is 20%. If you spin twice, the top # of the fraction becomes 2 but the # of ouitcomes remains the same: 2/5, .4 or 40%. Theoretically, if you spin 5 times, you have 5/5 or 100% chance of spinning blue.
The cited web source has some interactive experiments.

2007-06-10 17:05:06 · answer #2 · answered by gm 2 · 0 1

The chances will ALWAYS be 20% no matter how many times you spend the wheel. Since the number of possible results (color wedges) don't change, the odds of the result being a specific one is 1 out of the number of possiblities. In your example it will be 1 out of 5 (or 20%). The number of times you spin the wheel won't change the outcome odds.

Hope this helps!

2007-06-10 16:54:47 · answer #3 · answered by wrkey 5 · 0 0

No matter how many times you spin it each time you spin it you still have a 1 in 5 chance of getting blue each time.

2007-06-10 16:55:47 · answer #4 · answered by Nikki 2 · 0 0

This is a Big Leap, but... I'm going to assume that you mean that if you spin one, two, three, or five times, what are the chances that you will get blue each time you spin. (like, spin one you get blue. spin two you get blue. spin three you get blue, and so on.)

well, if one time your chances are 20% (which is .2), two times spinning your chances are .2 * .2, which is .04

three times, it's .2 * .2 * .2 which is .008

five times it's .2 * .2 * .2 * .2 * .2 which is .00032

.04 is 4%
.008 is .8%
.00032 is .032%

yayy;; probability!! Lol.
hope this helps.

2007-06-10 16:55:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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