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Yes but it is clearly implied in the first amendment: "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.The phrase separation of church and state is generally traced to a 1802 letter by Thomas Jefferson to the Danbury Baptists, although the earliest expression of the concept is credited to Roger Williams.

2007-06-09 18:59:15 · answer #1 · answered by ithek_thundervoice 4 · 10 3

The Communists on the far left don't want the real truth to be known. there are no amendments that even hint of separation of church and state. It does say that congress shall not create a state run religion. Yes, I am paraphrasing, but not by much.
Back in the early 1900s the communists in this country started the lie and then a federal judge strengthened this lie by making a ruling to keep out a Catholic from serving on the bench, or in public sevice as a politician, I don't remember exactly which it was. It turned out that he was a member of the KKK and also a Democrat. By the way, that is documented and public record. The founders of this country had congress open with prayer every day and still do to this day and also have a preacher on the payroll. Our forefathers recognized the importance and need for Christian morals in this country. They just didn't want another government run by the church of England.That is a fact that they made very clear, and anyone who has thoroughly studied the Constitution knows this and to deny this truth is but a lie.

2007-06-10 02:12:39 · answer #2 · answered by celticwarrior7758 4 · 1 4

Yes, it is not in the Constitution and Jefferson's letter, which is cited often enough, is not the law of the land. The ESTABLISHMENT of religion clause is in contradistinction with the Church of England. There should be no national church and no religious test for holding national office. It has nothing to do with prayer by public officials since the same bodies which ratified the First Amendment also began each session with prayer and employed (with public funds) clergy.

Too many people confuse what they think policy SHOULD BE and what it ACTUALLY IS.

2007-06-10 02:37:56 · answer #3 · answered by Skeeter D 2 · 3 1

The First Amendment states:
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof…"

Article VI, Section 3 of the constitution also states:
"The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial officers, both of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial officers, both of the United States, and of the several States, shall be bound by oath or affirmation to support this Constitution; but no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States."

It is not literally but, it is implied.

2007-06-10 02:12:23 · answer #4 · answered by citizenjanecitizenjane2 4 · 4 2

Yes. It's discussed in the Federalist Papers, which are founding papers, but not Law.

The Constitution was written to prohibit the establishment of a State religion; and to ensure that individuals would always have the right to free expression of their own religion.

2007-06-10 02:01:23 · answer #5 · answered by Boomer Wisdom 7 · 4 0

It's common parlance for the Establishment Clause of the 1st Amendment, which says, in essence, the federal government cannot endorse religion, fund a church, prefer one religion to another, or entangle itself in religious affairs.

The Constitution was written in the 18th Century by people who owned slaves and plantations. It's how it's been interpreted by the Supreme Court that matters; the literal wording is not as important. What do you think the Founders would have thought of Closed Circuit TV jury trials? The Constitution has to be interpreted in light of the times.

2007-06-10 02:03:10 · answer #6 · answered by JudgmentProof 2 · 1 3

The phrase is not in the constitution, all non liberals are aware of this.

I think some liberals may have a valid fear in religion having too strong of a role in government. I am from small town Oklahoma and as a youth I found that churches did have way too much political power.

I believe the remedy was far worse than the problem. I do not believe it is possible to completely eliminate faith from government. I believe this because faith is an important component of many peoples lives. I do not believe it is fair to ban them from voicing their opinions because you have the misguided belief that faith must end at the door when entering a government building.

I believe that a compromise must be sought, religion cannot be banned nor can it run government.

2007-06-10 02:04:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 4

Just because a specific term or phrase does not reside int he document does not mean that the rights derived based on the text of the document can not be discerned.

In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of Counsel for his defense.

I suppose the above can't be taken to mean that we have a "right to a fair trial" ? - gee, the term isn't in the consititution...

Try making a valid point...

2007-06-10 02:05:23 · answer #8 · answered by lyricshade2003 3 · 2 2

Somebody needs to study their constitution a little more.

"The Establishment Clause of the First Amendment prohibits the establishment of a national religion by Congress or the preference of one religion over another, or religion over non-religion."

From:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution

and

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Everson_v._Board_of_Education

And because if the incorporation doctrine, this applies to state governments as well.

See here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incorporation_doctrine

Also:
"The phrase separation of church and state is generally traced to a letter written by Thomas Jefferson in 1802 to the Danbury Baptists, in which he referred to the First Amendment of the United States Constitution as creating a "wall of separation" between church and state."

(You know... one of the guys who drafted our constitution...)

From:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separation_of_church_and_state


So you have to understand that the seperation clause is implied by the wording in the constitution and has been interpreted as such by the supreme court.

Hope this helps!

2007-06-10 02:15:26 · answer #9 · answered by p37ry 5 · 2 1

yeah, it was in a Letter that Thomas Jefferson wrote. It was just a REALLY GOOD Idea, one that our prez & candidates need to take. I'm glad if you believe in God but Your religious beliefs may not be the same as mine. There's things I agree on that may not be because of religion.

2007-06-10 02:01:43 · answer #10 · answered by Nib 2 · 2 1

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