1 + tan²x = sec²x, so you have
csc²x/sec²x
= 1/sin²x / 1/cos²x
= cos²x/sin²x
= cot²x
2007-06-09 18:04:23
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answer #1
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answered by Kathleen K 7
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The Pythagorean Identity with tangent in it is: 1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x.
csc^2(x) / (1 + tan^2(x) )
csc^2(x) / sec^2(x)
So, that is the inverse of tan^2 x, or
cot^2(x)
2007-06-09 18:10:10
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answer #2
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answered by Alex 4
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sec^2(x) is 1+tan^2(x)
This comes from the trig identity sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1 and dividing through by cos^2(x)
Hence expression is now cosec^2(x)/sec^2(x)
cosec(x)=1/sin(x) and sec(x)=1/cos(x)
Hence the expression becomes cos^2(x)/sin^2(x) which is
1/tan^2(x)
Hence your answer is tan^-2(x) or 1/tan^2(x), cot^2(x)
2007-06-09 18:11:03
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answer #3
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answered by Astrape 1
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use the identity sec^2(a)=1+tan^2(a)
2007-06-09 18:06:53
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answer #4
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answered by mendelbrot 1
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Do with the aid of fact the previous answerers propose and get: (sinx +sinx/cosx +a million +a million/cosx) / (a million/cosx +a million) Multiply numerator and denominator by technique of using cosx: sinxcosx +sinx +cosx +a million) / (a million +cosx) = sinx(cosx +a million) +a million(cosx +a million) / (a million+cosx) = (cosx+a million)(sinx +a million) / (a million+cosx) = sinx +a million
2016-12-12 16:45:35
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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csc^2(θ) / (1 + tan^2(θ) )
**
1 + tan^2θ = sec^2θ because:
LHS = (cos^2θ + sin^2θ)/cos^2θ
= 1/cos^2θ
= sec^2θ
**
Sub this into formula gives us:
csc^2θ/sec^2θ
= cos^2θ/sin^2θ
= cot^2θ
Hope this helps!
2007-06-09 18:08:26
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answer #6
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answered by Joel M 2
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let x = theta:-
(1 / sin ² x) / (1 + sin ² x / cos ² x)
(cos ² x / sin ² x) / (cos ² x + sin ² x)
cos ² x / sin ² x
cot ² x
2007-06-10 03:30:47
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answer #7
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answered by Como 7
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