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21 answers

The two different forces of the objects depends on the weight of each object. Can't just say that they are different, unless one object is bigger, smaller, lighter, or heavier than the other.

2007-06-09 03:47:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For these 2 object, we have to assume that the air resistance factor is neglected. If that's so, the acceleration attained by these 2 different object will be the same. Since their initial velocity in free fall is also the same, these 2 objects will surely fall at the same time down to earth using Newton's rectilinear equations ( v = u + at) or s= 1/2 at^2.

The force of gravity on these 2 objects although are different due to the formula F=mg, but the more massive the object, the greater is the inertia it possesses. We cannot make the statement that inertia balances off the weight because inertia is only a characteristic and has no units.

2007-06-17 02:23:21 · answer #2 · answered by Pikay C 1 · 0 0

In a vacuum any 2 objects dropped simultaneously will fall at the same rate. Weight and mass are not factors in deciding what will fall faster. They are both acted on by 1 force, that would be gravity, since gravity pulls objects at the same rate of acceleration regardless of mass. If it's in the air then the rules change a bit, since you're introducing aerodynamics into the equation. But regardless of whether they're dropped in a vacuum or in atmosphere they would have the same acceleration going to the ground.

2007-06-15 22:51:46 · answer #3 · answered by dkillinx 3 · 0 0

The force is the same, gravity. However, the amount of force exerted on each object is different, yes.

Remember, gravity is the mutual attraction of matter to other matter. If an object is drastically heavier than another, it's because it has drastically more matter in it, and therefore feels a stronger attraction to the Earth than the other. Gravity is not just the Earth pulling on an object, it's the Earth and an object pulling on each other. (Of course, the Earth is so big, it never moves significantly, so that part of the problem usually gets ignored.)

2007-06-09 03:56:28 · answer #4 · answered by stork5100 4 · 0 0

NO. There is only ONE force acting on both of these objects--gravity. Any object near the Earth's surface will experience the exact same acceleration (9.8 m/s^2), so they fall the same distance in equal time.

If they fall a great distance, (like from an airplane) then you have to consider the role of air resistance, or drag, which will change the terminal velocity of each object.

Again, there is only one force acting on free-falling objects near to the Earth's surface. The result of gravity's acceration gives each object a different weight (W = mg), but not a different velocity.

2007-06-09 03:52:27 · answer #5 · answered by stevenB 4 · 0 0

Consider two objects one 5kg and another 10 kg.

Place 5kg in one pan of a balance and the 10kg in the other pan.

The pan having 10 kg mass comes down and the one having 5kg goes up.

This shows that the earth pulls the 10kg mass with a great force; the actual force is 100 newton. The 5 kg mass is pulled by 50 newton.

Thus we understand that earth pulls small mass with small force and heavy mass with heavy force.


1 kg mass is pulled by a force of 10 N
5 kg mass is pulled by 50 newton.
10kg mass is pulled by 100 newton.


The reason that different masses fall equally, is that different forces act on different masses as already stated.

If they were all attracted by equal forces then light mass will reach earth sooner than heavy mass.

The rate of change of speed or acceleration is found by Force / mass.

In all the above example, the acceleration is 10m/s^2.

As the forces are proportional to the masses the acceleration of all objects is constant and is equal to 10m/s^2.

Two objects are dropped they fall equally because they weigh drastically or different forces acts on them.

2007-06-09 04:30:21 · answer #6 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0 0

Well technically they can have drastically different mass.
Assuming that friction from the air is negligable, which would not be the case for say a lead ball and a parachute falling side by side.
However a lead ball and a plastic ball with drastically different mass would fall at the same rate of accelleration.
Where they would differ is when they hit their maximum velocity.

2007-06-09 03:53:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This can be simply explained by the model that says that, even though the more massive object is more strongly attracted by gravity, it has the same factor of more inertia, which tends to resist gravity. The 2 exactly cancel, thus 2 objects of different weight fall at the same rate.

Two different forces? No, just one force, gravity, attempting to overcome a property called inertia.

2007-06-09 03:49:51 · answer #8 · answered by Gary H 6 · 0 0

The rate of objects falling does not depend on their mass. A rubber ball and a bowling ball or a feather and a ton of iron will fall at the same rate in the same time over the same distance - as long as we do not consider air resistance.

The factors affecting the fall are:
Initial velocity, u
Final velocity, v
Acceleration, a (which is 9.81m/s2 if you're on Earth)
Distance, s
Time, t

The factors are related by the following equations:
v=u+at
v2=u2+2as
s=ut+(1/2)at2
s=(1/2)(u+v)t

2007-06-11 05:36:48 · answer #9 · answered by Kemmy 6 · 0 0

(I think this will answer your question)
Just because two objects have the same acceleration does not mean that they have the same force acting on them. Greater mass means that a greater force will have to be exerted in order to get an acceleration. The force due to gravity(near the surface of a planet) is mg and the acceleration of the object is g.
If you think of it using F=ma, the less massive object needs a smaller force then a more massive object to get the same a.

2007-06-09 03:52:08 · answer #10 · answered by Tony D 1 · 0 0

Consider the two objects as having masses m1 and m2.
The gravitational field is there before the objects are dropped - it is independent of either, yet acts on both ...
So, m1 accelerates at rate a1, and similarly for m2. That is, mi accelerates at rate of ai, i = 1, 2.
As you're aware,
F1 = m1*a1
and
F2 = m2*a2, according to Newton's Second Law.
But ai = g, the acceleration due to gravity, for i = 1, 2. This is essential to your question. They both accelerate at the same rate g.
Then F1/m1 = g = F2/m2. So if m1 > m2, then F1 > F2; the forces ARE different in magnitude, but have the same direction. (Recall that force is a vector, and is not completely defined until magnitude and direction are specified.)

2007-06-09 04:12:27 · answer #11 · answered by Mick 3 · 0 0

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