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2007-06-08 23:44:44 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

and how do i work it out without a calculator?

2007-06-09 00:24:44 · update #1

10 answers

32^(-1/5)=1/(32^(1/5))=1/2 (because 2^5=32)

2007-06-08 23:49:31 · answer #1 · answered by Wintermute 4 · 1 0

32^(-1/5) can be solved by the following procedure:

#1 - The minus sign of the power can be removed by reciprocating the number i.e. 32 which gives 1/32^(1/5).

#2 - 1/32 can be converted to (1/2)^5.

#3 - thus we have the number {(1/2)^5}^1/5.

#4 - this can also be written as (1/2)^5*1/5.

#5 - 5*1/5 equals 1.Therefore 32^(-1/5)= 1/2.

2007-06-09 07:13:58 · answer #2 · answered by Tweety... 3 · 0 0

32^(-1/5) = 1/ (32 to the power of one fifth) = 1/2

2007-06-09 08:07:49 · answer #3 · answered by handsomeboy1702 2 · 0 0

1/2

2007-06-09 07:14:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1/2

2007-06-09 07:09:35 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

32^(-1/5)
= (1/32)^(1/5)
// by virtue of the negative sign in the exponent, the number 32 gets to be reciprocated
= 1 / [ (32)^(1/5) ]
= 1 / [ (2^5)^(1/5) ]
// playing around with the factors of 32, we see that it is 2^5
= 1 / 2

2007-06-09 08:16:56 · answer #6 · answered by JR 2 · 0 0

32^(-1/5)
this can be written as positive power term by reciprocating
32^(-1/5)=1/32^(1/5)
=1/2

2007-06-09 07:00:58 · answer #7 · answered by prabhu 1 · 1 0

32^(- 1 / 5) = 1 / 32^(1/5) = 1 / 2

2007-06-09 11:29:10 · answer #8 · answered by Como 7 · 0 0

32^(-1/5)
=(2^5)^(-1/5)
=2^(5*(-1/5))
=2^(-1)
=1/2

2007-06-09 08:15:52 · answer #9 · answered by angshu_rai1 2 · 0 0

(32)^-1/5 = 1/(32)^1/5 ............(a)^-m= 1/(a)^m
1/[(2)^5]^1/5 = 1/2 ............(a^m)^n=a^mn

2007-06-13 06:43:04 · answer #10 · answered by billako 6 · 0 0

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