32^(-1/5)=1/(32^(1/5))=1/2 (because 2^5=32)
2007-06-08 23:49:31
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answer #1
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answered by Wintermute 4
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32^(-1/5) can be solved by the following procedure:
#1 - The minus sign of the power can be removed by reciprocating the number i.e. 32 which gives 1/32^(1/5).
#2 - 1/32 can be converted to (1/2)^5.
#3 - thus we have the number {(1/2)^5}^1/5.
#4 - this can also be written as (1/2)^5*1/5.
#5 - 5*1/5 equals 1.Therefore 32^(-1/5)= 1/2.
2007-06-09 07:13:58
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answer #2
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answered by Tweety... 3
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32^(-1/5) = 1/ (32 to the power of one fifth) = 1/2
2007-06-09 08:07:49
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answer #3
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answered by handsomeboy1702 2
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1/2
2007-06-09 07:14:57
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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1/2
2007-06-09 07:09:35
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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32^(-1/5)
= (1/32)^(1/5)
// by virtue of the negative sign in the exponent, the number 32 gets to be reciprocated
= 1 / [ (32)^(1/5) ]
= 1 / [ (2^5)^(1/5) ]
// playing around with the factors of 32, we see that it is 2^5
= 1 / 2
2007-06-09 08:16:56
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answer #6
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answered by JR 2
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32^(-1/5)
this can be written as positive power term by reciprocating
32^(-1/5)=1/32^(1/5)
=1/2
2007-06-09 07:00:58
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answer #7
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answered by prabhu 1
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32^(- 1 / 5) = 1 / 32^(1/5) = 1 / 2
2007-06-09 11:29:10
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answer #8
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answered by Como 7
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32^(-1/5)
=(2^5)^(-1/5)
=2^(5*(-1/5))
=2^(-1)
=1/2
2007-06-09 08:15:52
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answer #9
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answered by angshu_rai1 2
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(32)^-1/5 = 1/(32)^1/5 ............(a)^-m= 1/(a)^m
1/[(2)^5]^1/5 = 1/2 ............(a^m)^n=a^mn
2007-06-13 06:43:04
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answer #10
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answered by billako 6
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