Given that the coefficient of x² in the expansion of
( 1 + px )^4 * ( 1 + qx )^3
is -6, and that
p + q = 1,
find the values of p and q.
The answers are:
p = 2, q = -1
or
p = -2, q = 3.
I know how to expand the equations... choose and everything. But apparently there's a less tedious way to find out the coefficient of x² with multiple expansions.
For a simpler one, such as (1+4x)(2-x)^6, I know that you get two terms with x²:
(1)......1*15(2^4)(-x)² = 240x²
(2)......4x*(6)(2^5)(-x) = -768x²
(1)+(2) = -528x²
And hence you get the coefficient of x².
But for (1+px)^4 * (1+qx)^3, it's obviously different because both expansions have powers and henceforth I'll have to multiply certain terms here and there to get the final coefficient of x² ... it's too complicated, though, if I'll have to expand everything. Is there a simpler way to do it, and could you provide a working? Thanks!
2007-06-08
18:51:41
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4 answers
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asked by
kimiessu
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
I won't say I'm *sure* of these answers, because the answers I got were p = -3/2 and q = 5/2, as well. These're just the answers my Math lecturer gave me. Yes, I've used the Binomial Theorem, but this is just a three-marks question, so I don't think I'd need to expand it so much. The expansions for the first three terms of both equations are
(1+px)^4 = 1 + 4px + 6p²x² + ...
(1+qx)^3 = 1 + 3qx + 3q²x² + ...
The first part of the question was to find the terms of both equations including and/or up to the x² term in said equations. I omitted it because I had no problem with that, but it seems now that you'll have to use the information from this part to work out the answer for the second part, hence my question about the x² and how you'd find the values of p and q from there.
Thanks again!
2007-06-08
19:26:15 ·
update #1