2007-06-08 15:10:13 · 7 answers · asked by tony l 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Actually, he underestimated the circumference of the world, and so thought that he had sailed far enough to get from Spain to Asia, when in reality he was only about a third of the way. Also, of course, nobody had any idea that there were two whole continents between Spain and Asia. So he naturally assumed he had landed on an island off the coast of Asia. At the latitude where he was, he thought he should be off the coast of India or Southeast Asia. The name 'Indies' was commonly used for this region. Even though he, and everybody else, soon realized he had discovered a new world, the name 'Indies' has been used for the Caribbean Islands ever since, along with the name 'Indians' for Native Americans.
Today, we call the Caribbean Islands generally the 'West Indies' to distinguish them from the islands off the coast of Southeast Asia, which are called the 'East Indies'.
2007-06-08 15:41:34 · answer #1 · answered by mr.perfesser 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If your asking what the reason was, then it was because he figured, well if the world is round then it would be faster to go west towards India as opposed to East. I'm sure you already know this but Columbus did not discover America and everyone already knew the world was round. If someone said that the world was flat at that time it would be the equivalent of saying that the moon is made of cheese.
2007-06-08 15:17:41 · answer #2 · answered by maralshabak 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
D. Columbus did not know North and South America existed. He reasoned that the world was round. His original intent was to sail westward until he got to India. Otherwise, to get to India, in 1492, by ship, he would have to sail completely around Africa and approach India from the southwest. In those days, the trip would have taken at least one year.
2016-05-20 06:44:28 · answer #3 · answered by rene 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He thought the world was round. He thought all he had to do was to sail west from Spain across the Atlantic, and he would arrive in India. After all, Vasco de Gama sailed around Africa and to the East. Logic governs action. It wasn't his fault that the continents of North and South America blocked the way.
2007-06-08 15:16:42 · answer #4 · answered by steve_geo1 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yup..that's why he called the natives 'Indians'..thinking he had reached India..it's that easy=)
2007-06-08 15:40:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
what's the question?
2007-06-08 15:14:13 · answer #6 · answered by Zarin A 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yess...
2007-06-08 15:29:40 · answer #7 · answered by becca 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋