My answer is 84%. Am I right?
2007-06-08
13:41:33
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11 answers
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asked by
doogsdc
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in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
Thank you, Ronald, for the simplest answer. My real interest is in deriving a formula to determine the probability for achieving a desired outcome at least ONCE for a variable number of outcomes and "tries".
Where...
x = number of outcomes (as in x = number of sides on the die)
y = number of "tries" (rolls of the die)
Previously, I had a complicated formula, but the simplest formula I can create with Ronald's math is this:
Probability of getting desired outcome at least once = 1 - [(x-1)/x]^y
It seems to check out.
2007-06-08
14:01:22 ·
update #1
The probability of NOT rolling a 6 on a die in one roll is 5/6. The probablility of not rolling a 6 on ten rolls is (5/6)^10, so the probablility of rolling a die and getting at least one 6 is 1 - (5/6)^10 or 83.8%.
2007-06-08 13:49:10
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answer #1
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answered by skipper 7
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that would be a binomial experiment with
n = 10 and p = 1/6. You'd figure it out for k = 0 (no 6's) and then subtract this from 1. (This is an example of where it's a LOT easier to figure out by the compliments rule, than figuring out the probability of one or two or three or ... 10 sixes.)
84% seems a bit low, it seems like if the probability is 1 in 6, and the number of trials is more than 6, the outcome ought to be certain. So let's put this in the formula for binomial probability.
P(k=0) (n = 10, p = 1/6) is C(10,0) x (1/6)^0 x (5/6)^10
Since C(n,0) = 1 for all positive n, and p^0 = 1 for all nonzero p, this reduces to (5/6)^10, as others have said.
2007-06-08 20:48:15
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answer #2
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answered by Joni DaNerd 6
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The probability is one minus the chance of not rolling a six in ten tries.
P(at least one 6) = 1 - (5/6)^10 â .838 or 83.8%
So you are correct.
2007-06-08 21:45:39
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answer #3
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answered by Northstar 7
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for each roll, the probability of not rolloing a 6 is 6/7. the probability of not rolling a 6 10 times in a row is
(6/7)^10=0.214 so the probability of rolling at least 1 6 is
1-(6/7)^10=0.786 or 78.6%
2007-06-08 20:49:24
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answer #4
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answered by yupchagee 7
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Anwer is still 1/6
possibility every roll is 1/6 , 6 possibilities for 6 rolls
total possibility for 6 rolls is 36
probability = 6/36 = 1/6 = 16.66%
2007-06-08 22:47:12
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answer #5
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answered by CPUcate 6
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I don't know how to use the keyboard to write the mathematical symbols, so, I will put it this way.
The probability equals to 1-(A/B)
Where B is 6X6 X6 X6 X6 X6 X6 X6 X6 X6=60466176 (all the combinations for ten rolls)
While A equals to 5X5X5X5X5X5X5X5X5X5= 9765625
A/B is the possibility of not having six at all =0.16150556
So the final probability is 1-1.6150556= 0.83849444 approximately %84
2007-06-08 21:14:25
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answer #6
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answered by B 2
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Yep, that's correct.
Figure out the odds of rolling no sixes on your ten rolls.
That's (5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6)*(5/6).
The odds of rolling at least one six are 1 - (5/6)^10
That's 1 - 0.1615, or 0.8385.
That rounds to 84%, which is the answer you got.
2007-06-08 20:47:55
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answer #7
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answered by Bramblyspam 7
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at least once is the complement of no sixes. The probability of no 6's is (5/6)^10 = .1615
1-.1615 = 83.8%, your answer looks good to me!
2007-06-08 20:48:00
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answer #8
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answered by Kathleen K 7
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that is...
[5^9 + 5^8 + 5^7 + ... + 5^0]/6^10
compute in your calculator
2007-06-08 20:46:36
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answer #9
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answered by dudellbytez 1
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The possibility is 100%
Probability???
2007-06-08 20:49:23
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answer #10
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answered by science_joe_2000 4
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