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if we model the air resistance on a falling person as being proportional to the square of that person's speed, in certain circumstanjces the proportionality constant between the air resistance and the square of the speed is equal to 0.100 kg/m. A) What would the terminal velocity of a 72 kg person? B) What would be the air resistance when the person's speed is half the terminal velocity?

2007-06-08 12:48:49 · 4 answers · asked by physicsdum 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

this note for study refances how it can be done and sove in diffent ways only just put first latter for word virstdey the latter v sand for that word just like used dictanaery word and math togather to keep it orgenilzed neet and right answer key answer is 4 g,s or gravitey force speed is vebation for it is 4(gfs).or 4 gs G's that will simplefied it . there diffent and endless that have not been discovered ways of doing it yet postabileys. are endless.. or thought of yet . and my answer for this qustion of air resistance is 9.8kg 3.14 mutplyed togather then brack down untile it get to mass of 2 or m2 or pie facter of 2 or facter by simplefied it brack it down or ealbarts eaqurtion e mc2 is based on mass and time travale newton law is based on gravitey speed and wight and time fuigering for furing out tips for all you phsychics teachers, phsychic freacks and porfassers out there ..note this only for simple teaching mathed to mack people understand it for next genrations of phsychic teachers and perfassers studants... thank you for your time it was plassuer expaing this feet of wisdum ..

2007-06-08 13:39:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Here is how I think you do it:

This equasion gives terminal velicity, where the air resistance upward force equals the downward force of the falling object.
.1[kg/m]*v^2=72[kg]*9.8[m/s^2]
so v is 84 m/s

since terminal velocity is 84m/s , 1/2 term vel is 42 m/s.
at that speed air resistance is:
.1(42^2)=176.4 kg*m^2/s^2

2007-06-08 20:07:36 · answer #2 · answered by CCC 2 · 0 0

Its not that bad.... Know calculus?

A) from newton's 2ND law:
Fnet=mg-.100v^2

set Fnet=0 since there is no acceleration
at terminal velocity and solve for v you can do the math yourself

B)
divide your answer from part a in half and plug it into F=.100v^2

2007-06-08 19:54:00 · answer #3 · answered by kennyk 4 · 0 0

Other than very rare occasions , terminal velocity is not altered by weight etc. It is the acceleration of gravity that determines terminal velocity.

2007-06-08 20:31:40 · answer #4 · answered by military supporter 7 · 0 1

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