Does the word "exists" in the stmt "God exists." have the same sense as *exist* in the stmt "Atoms exist."?

Question

Please can you explain the relevent similarity or difference as you use the word exist in each case. Please forego critiques of the Q or the asker since neither action is relevant esp if you make no attempt to answer the Q constructively. This Q is a fundamental issue in metaphysics and language use. TWH 06082007-5

"exist" and "exists" are both sentence predicates from a linguistic point of view, but the meaning(semantics and logic) of its use from a philosophic point of view differs and that difference is what I am focused on understanding and explaining. I'm not a teacher or a student, just someone who ponders problems and issues in philosophy, science, and religion.

Yes this is a real Q in philosophy as I have said already. Hopefully the trolls and point seekers will stay away and let us be. I see good A's indicating an effort to think before typing. Thanks

I think I know what Boolean means but could you elaborate what you mean by the term in layman's terms.

Answer 1

WOW - at last a real philosophical question.

I think the usage of the word 'exists' is used in a different way by Christians and other religious people. They have a belief in the existence where atoms are demonstrable. That is a very different usage.

Answer 2

Grammatically they're the same. Philosophers have been debating various definitions of the noun "Existance" for quite some time, but the verb "exist" is thus far boolean.

Edit: Sorry, what I mean by boolean, is that the word describes a state with only two possibilities and no middle ground. On/Off, Something/Nothing, 0/1 (in integers), is/isn't. The phrases "Atoms exist", or "God exists" both state the same thing in the simplest possible terms. They either exist, or they do not exist; but there is no compromise of partiality available.

Answer 3

Obviously not.

The first is a statement of belief.

The second is a statement of demonstrable fact.

Now, before the good Christians fall over themselves denouncing me as a non-believer, I am well aware that the existence of God can be explained through devices such as Intelligent Design. I don't need that device. I illogically believe in God.

However, in the context of the question, "exists" means the same in either case. The difference is in the execution.

Answer 4

Gramatically they are used in the same sense except one is used for a plural noun
On the other hand one defines a person (or believed to be person) and the other defines something without a human form so to say....
Then you can also say that one is stated out of belief and the other is stated after being proven scientifically.
Any way you look at it they both state that God and atoms "ARE".

Answer 5

The Bible recognises the life of the Canaanite god Ba'al in numerous places. the certainty is that Christian monotheism originated interior the deserts of Egypt which became before Polytheist. consequently the early followers have been on very close shelter for the previous impacts. In later situations the Egyptian concepts have been tempered with the concepts of Zoroastrianism with its bi-polar top/incorrect mentality which maintains to be the lynchpin of Christian morality to right this moment. till now that it became uncomplicated obedience consequently Commandments, Deuteronomy etc.

Answer 6

An adequate answer to this amazing question cannot be constructed in this format. Existentialists have spent volumes working through, struggling with, and attempting to understand "Being" and "being." In your question, you are merely substituting "exist" for "is" and "exists" for "are" and in doing so are bring to discussion the "is" of "is" and the complexity of "Being," "being," "being-for," "being-with," and numerous other existentialist notions.

Answer 7

They are the same, one has an s because the subject isn't plural.

Answer 8

ask it in the experts