2007-06-08 04:02:15 · 14 answers · asked by akkenapally m 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
0^0 = 1 or is undefined. It depends on the specific application. Ultimately, it is an indeterminate form, like 0/0.
2007-06-08 04:04:48 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1
2007-06-08 04:41:22 · answer #2 · answered by Nishant P 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
5^0 = 5^(1-1)
= (5^1)/(5^1)
= 5/5
= 1
You get the same result for any other non-zero value using a similar technique.
Try 0^0 now.
0^0
= 0^(1-1)
= (0^1)/(0^1)
= 0/0 which is indeterminate
0/0 can equal 0, 1, 2, 3 or any other number on the complex plane.
0^0 is undefined.
I got 1 when I tried it on the Windows calculator. You could argue that there is an equally strong case for 0^0 to be 2 or 3 or pi.
I tried 0^(-2) and got an error as I should --- 0^(-2) = 1/0^2 = infinity
2007-06-08 04:44:03 · answer #3 · answered by gudspeling 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
any number to the power of zero is 1. Therefor 0 power 0 is 1
2007-06-08 04:07:09 · answer #4 · answered by topsyk 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Like the quotient 0 / 0, 0 ^ 0 is COMPLETELY undefined.
There is no answer.
In calculus, both expressions can be approximated if an equation results in 0 / 0 or 0 ^ 0, but the answer completely depends on the form of the original equation, and could be any number from negative infinity to infinity.
2007-06-08 04:53:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I prefer to define 0^0 as 1, because it's consistent with properties involving the empty product. There are people who like to call it indeterminate, and I think there's mathematical justification for that too. I don't think there's much support for calling it 0; that would lead to some other strange properties that I don't like, such as 0 = 0^0 = (0^1)/(0^1) = 0/0. That would be bad.
2007-06-08 04:14:40 · answer #6 · answered by TFV 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hmmmm... zero to the power of anything is 0. However, anything to the power of zero is one. Two conflicting rules... I think it would either be 0 or indeterminable
2007-06-08 04:11:46 · answer #7 · answered by Leon K. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 because anything to the zero power is 1
2007-06-08 04:06:09 · answer #8 · answered by *live love laugh* 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Others have wisely responded that that isn't defined. extra exciting is that any genuine extensive style to the flexibility of 0 =a million an consumer-friendly thank you to visualise it fairly is to take any genuine extensive style and divide it via itself e.g. 4/4 = a million lifeless consumer-friendly eh? yet in addition 4/4 is the comparable as 4^a million x 4^ (-a million) Now via the rule of indices, as a result, you hold the extensive style yet 'upload' the indices, so which you get 4^(a million-a million) = 4^0 as a result 4^0 = 4/4 = a million wish it fairly is of a few help.
2016-11-07 23:07:44 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Zero
2007-06-08 04:05:40 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋