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2007-06-07 19:50:16 · 5 answers · asked by Matthew L 3 in Science & Mathematics Physics

For added bonus (what I really meant to ask), at the constant acceleration rate of G, and changing the vector of that acceleration at the midpoint between the earth and nearest star, how long would THAT trip take?

2007-06-07 20:02:10 · update #1

5 answers

In order to find this you can do the following: u=g.t where u=300.000.000m/sec (light speed) and t is time (seconds).=>
t= 300.000.000/9,8 = 30612244,8979 sec
=8503,401 hours= 354,30days = approximately one year. However you should know that you accept that you have a constant acceleration rate. This means that because F=m.a, where a is acceleration, F= force and m= mass, and because as your speed becomes comperable to light speed your mass increases exponentially, so does the Force needed to have this acceleration. This means that in order to keep your acceleration rate stable you'll need a continuously increasing force which is increasing towards infinity as your speed increases towards lght speed. So all these are just theoretical, there's no case you can reach light speed, as you can't have an infinite force. Such phainomena are speculated to only happen in the microclimax of the atoms or even less under very special circumstances, where some particles are able to travel excessing light speed, or are able to 'translocate' from one place to another without having to cross the (small) distance needed (quantic theory).But again all these are just theories, used to explain phainomena we haven't been yet able to understand.

2007-06-07 20:06:51 · answer #1 · answered by BFG9000 2 · 2 0

the problem there is also are you meaning isolated due to the fact as you approach the speed of light the mass of the object will increase thus causing additional energy to keep accelerating at the same rate. the real kicker there is that once you reach the speed of light the mass of the item would be infinite, which obviously you cant have infinite energy to push it also the fact that it would cause its own black-hole before that point with its own gravitational force. Sorry i dont remember the exact formula.

2007-06-08 03:04:43 · answer #2 · answered by Jesk 6 · 0 0

An infinite amount of time. (The speed of light is inattainable for a massive object.)

For your curiosity, you will gain speed as

v = c tanh(Gt/c)

Which for small arguments is ~ Gt as you would expect, but this does not hold for much higher speeds, which is why the answers below do not apply. As for how long it takes, which depends whether you are on earth or the spaceship, take a look @

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Twin_paradox

2007-06-08 02:57:46 · answer #3 · answered by supastremph 6 · 0 0

Vf = Vi at

solve for t

t = ( Vf - Vi ) / a

plug and chug

t = (299792458 m/s ) / 9.8m/s^2
t = 30591067 seconds

for fun: t = 8497.5 hours or 354 days, almost a year

2007-06-08 03:07:05 · answer #4 · answered by driftaddict87 4 · 0 0

v=u+at
v=299 792 458 m/s
u=0
a=9.7

t=(v-u)/a
= 299792458/9.8
= 30591067.142857142857142857142857
= 30600000 seconds.

2007-06-08 03:01:58 · answer #5 · answered by nivik 3 · 0 0

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