'e' to the power of 'i' times 'pi' equals -1. Therefore God exists. Respond.?

Answer 1

Can a person "prove" God exists? Descartes had difficulty proving he himself existed.

The fact that there is order in the universe and that it is not arbitrary in behavior -- even with the current quantum mechanics understandings in physics -- is evidence that the existence of a creator is a reasonable assumption. But NOT a proof. The evidence can be interpreted in many ways -- usually determined more by one's current world view than by mere logic.

BTW: An even more interesting variant of the equation is e^(i*pi) + 1 = 0 ... contains the most prominent constants/values of mathematics all in one equation.

Mathematics contains many elegant solutions and "beautiful" results. Making one wonder why...

The source of the order and why mathematics works at all is an open question.

Answer 2

Non sequitur.

I don't see what the big fuss is about this formula. Pi is a nice number on the number line, with properties like
... pi/4 = 1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 + 1/9 + 1/11 - 1/13 + ...
... pi^2 / 6 = 1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + ...
... pi - pi^3 / 6 + pi^5 / 120 - pi^7 / 5040 + ... = 0
-- but there is not much divine there.

i is not even a real number, it is a symbol that we treat using the rule i^2 = -1 and otherwise by pretending it is a number
-- indeed, an imaginary number.

The symbol e in the formula e^(i pi) does not really function as a number. The power notation suggests that we multipy e with itself, and that i pi times; but since i pi is not a number of all, that is problematic. Rather, we must interpret e^(i pi) as exp(i pi), where the function exp(x) is defined for any number (and in fact for anything that can be multiplied and add associatively and that lies in some kind of metric space so that we can take the limit -- like matrices) as
... exp(x) = 1 + x + 1/2 x^2 + 1/6 x^3 + 1/12 x^4 + ...

So e^(i pi) is just another way to write the limit of the sum
... exp(i pi) = 1 + (i pi) + 1/2 (i pi)^2 + 1/6 (i pi)^3 + ...
which still is a bunch of symbols, not a number. We use the rule that i^2 = -1 to make a little more sense of this:
... exp(i pi) = 1 + pi i - 1/2 pi^2 - 1/6 pi^3 i + 1/24 pi^4 + ...
and split out the multiples of i from the normal numbers,
... exp(i pi) = [1 - 1/2 pi^2 + 1/24 pi^4 - ...] + [pi - 1/6 pi^3 + ...] i
--- nothing really divine in here, yet.

Now there is good reason to believe that the limits of the sums
... C = 1 - 1/2 pi^2 + 1/24 pi^4 - 1/720 pi^6 + ...
... S = pi - 1/6 pi^3 + 1/120 pi^5 - 1/5040 pi^7 + ...
are -1 and 0, respectively. That is a special property of the number pi, but there is no reason to think that this is a divine property.

So, finally applying the numbers 1 and 0 to our formula we get
... e^(i pi) = -1 + 0 i
and fortunately we have decided that 0 i = 0 so that this imaginary number can be removed.

Now tell me, where did I employ the concept of God, divinity or anything associated with it?

If I didn't, it is logically impossible that this fact proves the existence of God.

Answer 3

One can say this equation is a miracle. If you write it like

e^i*pi +1 = 0

Then this formula shows a relationship between these most fundamental constants: 0, 1, i, pi, and e.

Answer 4

Since when can math prove the existence of God?

Answer 5

You can just add it to the list or reinterpret the meaning
of the term "God" , in the particular philosophical sense
as used by Einstein , to mean the essential substance or
principles of nature .

Answer 6

I do believe that math is full of little gems that God planted for us as rewards for our efforts, and that this equation is one of them.

Is it a proof of God's existence? Of course not; it's a proof of an identity in the complex plane!

But is it beautiful? Yes. Do I see God in beauty? Yes.

Answer 7

I can go along with that, but it's only because cos 180º = -1. You should come up with a more convincing argument!

(and put this under the religion part)

Answer 8

This was the "if you can't blind them with brilliance, baffle them with bullshit" argument that Euler himself used on an obnoxious salon fete guest who kept insisting that the existence of God be proven, way back in the 1700s.

Answer 9

Exactly! Most people can't get the answer right. they usually get +1. Yes God exist because of that equation, and pretty much the whole world. :) heehe

Answer 10

NO.

Both premise is ABSOLUTELY WRONG.

Neither your Equation NOR your God exist.