Well first of all the industrial revolution was quite a bit later than 1700 so it wasn't a matter of industrialization. Slaves in the north were primarily House servants and slaves in the south worked on plantations.
The work they did had nothing to do with the attitude toward slavery. Initially there was no difference in attitude. It wasn't until the Quaker abolitionists of the mid 1700's started influencing the north did the attitude start changing.
The first African slave arrived in 1619 and they trickled in after that. with the major slave trade begining in late 1600 early 1700.
So during the time period you listed there really wasn't much difference in attitudes.
2007-06-07 14:12:31
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answer #1
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answered by jimdamailman 2
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I think alot of it had to do with the size, demographic, and population density of the north vs the south. The north attracted far more diverse population ethnically, and alot of them were poorer working class citizens. They also packed into several of the major northern cities (e.g. NYC, Philadelphia, Boston). They were already providing a cheap labor pool, so there was no need to import a labor force. The South however had less population over more land. I think the South also tended to draw the more aristocratic elements of Europe whose families back home were big on serfdom and indentured servitude to work their lands. Since all the people who were your typical indentured servants in Europe immigrated to the north and were working in factories, the landowners in the South had to import another workforce by force, which was treated as assets instead of people. Slavery never entered the north mainly because the work force was already there, and the various ethnic groups stuck together and were fighting each other to see who could do it cheaper.
2007-06-07 14:04:19
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answer #2
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answered by Vic S 1
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In the southern states workers were required who could work in the hot sun picking cotton...the north was inundated with Irish and english workers who were used to a colder climate. The grand lifestyle of the white slave owners of the time could not survive without workers.....they didnt have much technology then....by their standard the north had much more machinery and factories to ease work.
2007-06-07 13:43:38
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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In the north more of the jobs were industrial. Slaves could not do that kind of work because it was against the law to educate a slave.
In the south it was all farms, so it was work that slaves could do.
It was a matter of economic reality. Neither side was that enlightened.
Joe
2007-06-07 13:40:50
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answer #4
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answered by Joseph G 6
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Honestly it was always the main difference between the industrializing north and the agricultural south. If there were no slaves in the south, who was going to pick the cotton, tobacco, etc. The entire economic heirarchy would be changed if slaves were freed.
2007-06-07 13:40:59
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answer #5
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answered by Andrew T 2
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Different settlement patterns. Lower nobility and traders acquiring big tracts in the South, building plantations, and exporting their unrefined products directly to Europe. Small settlers in the North, farming and gardening for local consumption, and laying the basis for factories and cities.
2007-06-07 13:49:27
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answer #6
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answered by Erik Van Thienen 7
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More money in the Northern colonies-Southern colonies mostly farms and plantations-cheap, uneducated workforce...
2007-06-07 13:44:52
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Northern Italians feel they are superior, more educated, and sohpisticated. Southern Italians think the north is snobby.
2016-04-01 08:53:02
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Slavery was different in the north because they didn't have to harvest giant plantations of crops. the north was working on different things. they were more into textiles and metalurgy.
People had to do things.
2007-06-07 13:44:11
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answer #9
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answered by Red 1
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