2007-06-07 13:09:35 · 13 answers · asked by superstar 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
it is important
2007-06-07 13:10:47 · update #1
If 5280 feet were a mile, and if there are 3 feet in every yard, then you would have 3 miles.
2007-06-07 13:14:35 · answer #1 · answered by CRAIG C 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1 miles = 1 760 yards
Let m=number of miles
m=5280/1760
m=3
5280 yards is equal to 3 miles
2007-06-07 13:15:46 · answer #2 · answered by bob 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5280 yards = 3 miles
2007-06-07 13:12:47 · answer #3 · answered by Jade 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5280 feet=1 mile
1 yard =3feet
5280*3*feet=xmiles
3(5280feet)=3(miles)
2007-06-07 13:13:20 · answer #4 · answered by UnknownD 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3
2007-06-07 13:16:11 · answer #5 · answered by dwayne t 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3
2007-06-07 13:12:48 · answer #6 · answered by nvrrong 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5280 yards is 3 miles. 1 mile is 1760 km. so 3x1760=5280
2007-06-07 13:13:52 · answer #7 · answered by arminrouhi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Three miles:
3 feet / yard x 1 mile / 5280 feet x 5280 yards
cancel out the feet and yards out just as you would a variable, and you get 3 miles remaining.
2007-06-07 13:19:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
5280 yards x 3 feet/yard x 1mile/5280 feet = 3 miles
The units yards and feet cancel as well as the 5280's leaving the number 3 and miles for units.
2007-06-07 13:26:24 · answer #9 · answered by RWhycome 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
each mile has 1760 yards
so 5280/1760= 3.
:))
2007-06-07 13:18:45 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋