English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

1) How Keynesian’s multiplier can be calculated algebraically?
2) What are the conditions for macroeconomic equilibrium in the economy?
3) What does it mean that slope of consumption function is less than 1 or 45 degree line?

2007-06-07 05:10:37 · 2 answers · asked by zubair y 1 in Social Science Economics

2 answers

Another damn fool who sat on his butt through econ class and now can't answer remedial econ questions. Do your own homework.

2007-06-07 05:36:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

To follow on from the above response, when you aren't dealing with the simple model it will be 1/(1-z), where "z" is the "marginal propensity to spend". That is, "z" is the slope of the aggregate expenditure line, which is the sum of all the coefficients on Y when you write down AE = C + I + G + NX. So, when dealing with an open economy with investment, z = MPC + MPI + MPIm. That is, respectively, the sum of the marginal propensity to consume, invest, and import. Note that if you are given a question where there are income taxes, then you should replace MPC in the above equation with MPC*(1-t), where "t" is the tax rate.

2016-04-01 07:59:02 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers