and if not the actual law, a scholarly source that indicates as such
2007-06-06
12:33:57
·
8 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Gender Studies
Thank you for your opinions, but they are not what i asked for, I am looking for the actual legal text that dictates your opinions, that current law prohibits a man from having any say in abortion, and/or is financially responsible for said child should a woman make the decision to go full-term
2007-06-06
12:46:28 ·
update #1
I am doing a research paper for crying out loud, and "opinions" don't help me, To Junipher: if i want my boyfriend to control my body, go live somewhere else? jesus christ, first of all, i never stated an opinion on this topic, and second of all where i live is not your concern, 3rd remove head from butt before speaking
2007-06-06
13:13:36 ·
update #2
What countries laws are we talking about?
The Irish people have actually rejected abortion twice in the last few decades.
The right of life to the unborn child was only entered into constitution in 1983 by popular referendum.
Interesting that the country seems to be going in the opposite direction than most other developed countries.
Legal text/constitution : http://www.taoiseach.gov.ie/index.asp?locID=194&docID=243
I assume you are actually talking about America though.
"Thus, the [Judiciary] Committee observes that no significant legal barriers of any kind whatsoever exist today in the United States for a woman to obtain an abortion for any reason during any stage of her pregnancy."
Report, Committee on the Judiciary, U.S. Senate, on Senate Joint Resolution 3, 98th Congress, 98-149, June 7, 1983, p. 6.
2007-06-07 00:43:18
·
answer #1
·
answered by Nidav llir 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
I am an attorney in WI, and as far as I am aware, there is no such thing. If your question is about whether or not women are the only ones able to make a decision to terminate a pregnancy (i.e., potential fathers cannot force or prevent an abortion), go to your state's Bar association, or to mine (Wisbar.org) and start a search through either statues or case law. However, food for thought...how could the law permit a potential father to infringe upon the rights of a woman to her own body? Also, in this state and many others, females under a certain age must have parental consent or a court order to obtain an abortion.
2007-06-06 19:40:24
·
answer #2
·
answered by Laura S 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
The ACLU website has information on the Roe v. Wade decision. Also, Planned Parenthood v. Casey, in 1992, struck down a law requiring women to notify thier husbands before obtaining an abortion. Hope this helps.
EDIT: Um, OK, current law from Roe v Wade says that the state must have a "compelling reason" to interfere in women's private medical decisions, and before the point of viability, there is no compelling reason. Men (other than judges) have never been allowed to force other women into having or not having medical procedures, at least not in the last 50 years.
Child support laws are a whole 'nother ball of wax. They really have nothing to do with the GENDER of the non-custodial parent. They are an anti-poverty measure enacted on behalf of children's rights of parental support.
People in this country have a constitutional right to bodily integrity. This has been the case since the country was founded. A decision in 1891 cleared this up, as well. This is not "my opinion". This is constitutional law. If you don't like making your own medical decisions, and want your boyfriend to be able to force you into an abortion or not, go live somewhere else. Might I suggest Afganistan?
2007-06-06 19:44:13
·
answer #3
·
answered by Junie 6
·
2⤊
3⤋
your question is hard to understand. which reproductive rights are you talking about?are you talking about the right to decide to have an abortion?if you don't know which law applies, how can you be so sure that "only for women" is correct? and finally, in the USA we are governed by a mix of federal law and the laws of the 50 states, so there is probably no simple answer to this question.
2007-06-06 19:52:40
·
answer #4
·
answered by njyogibear 7
·
1⤊
1⤋
Of course men have reproductive rights. They control their reproductive organs just as women do... using birth control or sterilization. If this isn't what you mean by reproductive rights then you need to be more specific with your question.
2007-06-07 03:22:05
·
answer #5
·
answered by ecogeek4ever 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Men & women both have specific funtions in reproduction.
So men DO TOO take part in reproduction.
I'm not sure what you mean by "reproductive rights".
In any situation regarding one's body, I don't think there should be any "laws" one should have to adhear to.
2007-06-06 19:42:44
·
answer #6
·
answered by psycho_majic_666 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Standing outside of an abortion clinic day after day, I have witnessed MANY men crying and pleading with women not to kill their baby....makes no sense that a man has the legal/financial responsibility if she has a baby, but no say in whether or not she kills it....
Both parents should have to sign on the dotted line if we are going to continue allowing the murder of unborn children. That would mean that FIRST a paternity test would be required to determine the biological father.....same test that is required when a woman decides to have a baby and hold the father responsible....
Food for thought.....when does one's "right to kill" supercede another person's "right to life"? Only in matters of self defense, as far as I know.....except, of course, in the case of a mother and her unborn child......Odd, no?
2007-06-06 19:52:03
·
answer #7
·
answered by martiismyname 3
·
3⤊
4⤋
I think that if a woman is going to have an abortion, she shouldn't tell the sperm contributor about the pregnancy at all. That way, everyone gets a break.
2007-06-06 20:00:45
·
answer #8
·
answered by Rio Madeira 7
·
3⤊
4⤋