it seem like his private language arument seems to be widely accepted in the philosophy world. pretty much fact.
but are there any VALID arguments against it? or was it a failed attempt by a person who misread wittgenstein (like alot of critics do)?
2007-06-06
07:23:17
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy
i can tell the first 3 answerers didnt know anything about philosophy or even what wittgenstein was trying to show.
2007-06-06
07:48:34 ·
update #1