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it seem like his private language arument seems to be widely accepted in the philosophy world. pretty much fact.

but are there any VALID arguments against it? or was it a failed attempt by a person who misread wittgenstein (like alot of critics do)?

2007-06-06 07:23:17 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

i can tell the first 3 answerers didnt know anything about philosophy or even what wittgenstein was trying to show.

2007-06-06 07:48:34 · update #1

3 answers

I think you have stated the very best argument against it yourself.

If his arguments are so arcane and confusing that nobody can understand them, has he really made any arguement at all? Isn't it just as likely that those who 'understand' are seeing something that ISN'T there as it is that those who 'misread' are not seeing something that is there?

I have observed myself that the truth is usually clear, consistent, and consise. Wittgenstein is NONE of these.

2007-06-06 07:43:23 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 0 1

private language is the one a person understood

2007-06-06 07:37:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

what the hell?

2007-06-06 07:25:56 · answer #3 · answered by tiffany 1 · 0 1

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