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2007-06-06 02:58:43 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Other - Society & Culture

4 answers

Technically, maybe, according to law.
Morally, possibly not.

2007-06-06 03:10:34 · answer #1 · answered by KC 7 · 0 0

No, well can you think of any crime which does not have a victim of some sort? Even if the victim is yourself (i.e using drugs ect.)

2007-06-06 03:11:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

depending on what law we're talking about :)

then again there's an exception to every rule

2007-06-06 03:14:57 · answer #3 · answered by pokerface 4 · 0 0

Apparently so judging from the laws...

2007-06-06 03:14:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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