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well, i need this tomorrow... please post ur answer asap...

2007-06-04 23:22:38 · 15 answers · asked by venuzzzzzz 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

15 answers

Defined

6 /3 = 2 obeys the axioms of the field. the reason division is the inverse operation of multiplication.

six divided by three equals two

6 / 3 = 2

Multiply two times three equals six

2 x 3 = 6

When you can divide a number in the numerator by a number in the denominator and gives you a quotient. The quotient times the denominator gives the product in the numerator. This is defined.

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Undefined

6 / 0

There is no real number multiplied times zero in the denominator that will give the product of 6 in the numerator. This is undefined.

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2007-06-05 01:41:36 · answer #1 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0 0

Division by zero is an operation for which you cannot find an answer, so it is disallowed. You can understand why if you think about how division and multiplication are related.

12 divided by 6 is 2 because
6 times 2 is 12

12 divided by 0 is x would mean that
0 times x = 12

But no value would work for x because 0 times any number is 0. So division by zero doesn't work.But maybe you're thinking of saying that 1/0 = infinity. Well then, what's "infinity"? How does it work in all the other equations?

Does infinity - infinity = 0?
Does 1 + infinity = infinity?

If so, the associative rule doesn't work, since (a+b)+c = a+(b+c) will not always work:

1 + (infinity - infinity) = 1 + 0 = 1, but
(1 + infinity) - infinity = infinity - infinity = 0.

You can try to make up a good set of rules, but it always leads to nonsense, so to avoid all the trouble we just say that it doesn't make sense to divide by zero.

2007-06-05 06:34:51 · answer #2 · answered by serpentine 2 · 0 0

Here - let me clear this for you.

Take a number, such as 8. Watch this pattern:

8/16 = 1/2 8/8 = 1 8/4 = 2 8/2 = 4 8/1 = 8

AS the denominator gets smaller, the answer gets larger. (in this case, as your halve the denominator, you double your answer)

Now, continue the pattern:

8/ (1/2) = 16 8/(1/4) = 32 8/ (1/8) = 64 8/(1/16) = 128

If this pattern continues, does it make sense that the smallest
numerical value dividng will result in the largest numerical answer. It should at this point.

The smallest numerical value is zero. Negative numbers have numerical values greater than zero, but are positioned left of zero. Since the absolute value, or distance, of negatives produces a value greater than zero, these negatives do not have a value smaller than zero.

Thus, zero is the smallest value we have.

If we divide by the smallest possible value, as like above, we will yield the greatest possible answer.

OK - what will that number be? Since we can't identify what that number is, is has no defined name or value - thus making it "undefined"

"undefined" does not mean it does not exist. It only means that we have no ability to give any meaning, name, value, etc.

2007-06-05 10:16:37 · answer #3 · answered by preichwein 3 · 0 0

the answer is simple. let say that the no. is x. the statement, x/0=n, where n is the quotient is equivalent to 0*n=x. but we all know that 0 times a number is 0 so x must always be 0. now 0/0 is also undefined for the same reason. 0/0=n is equivalent to
0*n=0. we all know that this is true for all n so there infinitely many answers. any number will do. taht's why x/0 is undefined.
hope you understand.

2007-06-05 06:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by geloi 2 · 0 0

Dividing a number means making equal distributions. For example divide 10 by 2 =5 means distributing 10 items equally in 2 groups & each group will get 5 items.

If a number is to be divided by 0 means you are to distribute among 0 groups. Anything which is to be distributed among 0 groups, how much each group will get, certainly you cannot define. Therefore anything divided by zero is undefined.

2007-06-05 07:06:28 · answer #5 · answered by Jain 4 · 0 0

You know that any number*0 = 0
so let's say that x/0 = y where x and y are neither 0 nor undefined
then x =0*y = 0 but in the first line it was said that x was not 0 nor undefined. So this self contradiction creeps in if any number divided by 0 was not undefined.

2007-06-05 06:29:45 · answer #6 · answered by Mock Turtle 6 · 0 1

No matter how many times you add 0, it won't add up to any number!

So .......... there is no number that you can multiply by 0 to get another number.

So ........... there is no way of solving if you divide any number by 0 (because, as you know, dividing means basically - how many of the second number does it take to make the first number)

Not a lawyer/mathematician type answer, but hopefully easier to understand and explain?

2007-06-05 06:33:50 · answer #7 · answered by maddog27271 6 · 0 0

0, or 1 , or 2 , or 3 , or 4... or any higher value number is "before-unit condition" of "any one of usual counts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5... or any higer order"!

It implies...

One has "no" before-unit and said condition is "zero"!

Two has "a" before-unit and said condition is one,

Three has "two" before-units and said condition is two,

Four has "three" before-units and said condition is three,

and so on, we merge equal a-units, which are "before-unts" of a next higher "merged a-units position"

Numbers "one" and and "any more than one" can be instantly grasped by an instant relating of "concerned before units" to "a-zero", (Zero has "no" before unit of it)! Effectively each count works like this! My awareness is based on Vedic computing principles!

If you relate any number having a least little value to a number other than zero it is computing!

By a consistent need to compute, a number application becomes actually difficult! Zero eliminates said consistent need to compute, which is highest "need and utility" of "a-zero"!

Fact is that I have explained an 'absolute zero value'!

As zero is "absolute nothingness" and nobody will ever divide 'a zero' further

Therefore a division involving zero (either zero as a numerator or as a denominator) will never take place and therefore sid division is undefinable!

I would like to add that...

An "infinitesimal value" is theoritially just above zero!

For all practical purposes an infinitesimal value is a concievable "zero". (Mathematicians will disagree with it)

When two infinitesimal values (that are equal in all respects) are numerator and denominator said division is sensible and answer of it is "one"!


Regards!

2007-06-05 09:45:09 · answer #8 · answered by kkr 3 · 0 0

Choose any x not equal to zero.
x=(x/0)*0=0.
Contradiction.
Thus we cannot permit x/0 to be defined for x<>0.
Now suppose y=0/0.
2=(y+y)/y=(0/0+0/0)/(0/0)
=((0+0)/0)/(0/0)
=(0/0)/(0/0)=1.
Contradiction.
Thus we cannot permit 0/0 to be defined.
Or to put it another way, if we define division by zero as a valid operation, it wreaks havoc with the simple laws governing the way addition and multiplication interact. So to avoid that dilemma, division by zero is disallowed.

2007-06-05 06:47:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If you have c/x, for some constant c, and consider its behavior as x goes to zero, it can go to infinity or negative infinity. Which one depends on the sign of c and whether you approach zero from the left or the right.

If instead, you have f(x)/g(x), you have something similar. As x approaches some limit where g(x) goes to zero, we can get a sign issue as above. We also can get a full range of possible limits for f/g. If f(x) also approaches zero at the same point it is indeterminant. Consider x^m / x^n. If mn, it goes to zero. If m=n, it goes to 1 obviously. More complicated function ratios, like sin(x) / x which goes to 1, exhibit the same things.

2007-06-05 06:36:39 · answer #10 · answered by jcsuperstar714 4 · 0 0

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