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Is 2x +3y = 4 a function?

Justify.

2007-06-04 17:17:39 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

Yes, this is a function. You can isolate y to get y=(4-2x)/3.
This could be rewritten as f(x)=(4-2x)/3.
For every x value that you put in, you get a y value.
You could also rewrite it as x=(4-2y)/2, in which case you could have f(y)=(4-2y)/2.
For every y value that you put in, you get an x value.
This constitutes a function.

2007-06-04 17:21:25 · answer #1 · answered by Nick 2 · 0 1

Yes...it specifies the resulting dependent variable's value with the given independent variable's value.

This is the essence of the mathematical concept of a function. More below.

In this case, either can be the dependent and independent variables, but y is usually the dependent variable.

2007-06-05 00:21:54 · answer #2 · answered by gebobs 6 · 0 0

yes this is in standard form of a line and a line never has 2 of the same x values with one y so it is a function

2007-06-05 00:27:21 · answer #3 · answered by I love to ball 3 · 0 1

well, if you put it in slope intercept form

2x+3y=4
3y=-2x+4
y=-2/3x+4/3

which defines a line, and nonvertical lines are indeed functions, so yes!

2007-06-05 00:20:50 · answer #4 · answered by Mike 2 · 0 0

yes, it is a line of the form

y= -(2/3)*x + (4/3)

-or-

y= m*x+b

justify-
continuous,
only one value of y for every x.

2007-06-05 00:25:30 · answer #5 · answered by anothersnowboarder 3 · 0 0

Yes, since you can isolate the x and y terms such that you form equations
x = by+c or y = fx+g.

2007-06-05 00:21:40 · answer #6 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

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