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1)The two-party political system has been replaced by a multiparty system

2)There have been no serious conflicts between branches of the Federal Government

3)The judicial branch has less and less influence on society

4)The Federal Government has assumed powers formerly exercised by the states

2007-06-04 15:44:10 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

Unfortunately, #4 takes the prize! A paramount example is public education: before it was mostly a local thing. Now, the Feds demand so many things, and get it, because they pay the States for "educating" (brainwashing) students. Before, there were teachers who "taught" students.

2007-06-04 15:57:08 · answer #1 · answered by Nothingusefullearnedinschool 7 · 0 1

1) False
2) False
3) False
4) False

The Federal Government has not assumed powers formerly exercised by the states, what the Fed Govt has done is to use its powers granted to it by the US Constitution. One of best examples is the Fed Govt stepping in and protecting the PEOPLE from the abuses of state govt's(1876-1960's state abuses of blacks)

whale

2007-06-05 00:22:50 · answer #2 · answered by WilliamH10 6 · 1 0

i could bypass with #4. We nonetheless use a especially 2 social gathering device (until you think approximately the fairway social gathering a actual social gathering), there have been conflicts between gov. branches(e.g. S.C. vs Ex. with FDR +New Deal, etc.), and the judicial branch has been extra influential (Brown v Board of Ed., Roe v. wade, etc.).

2016-12-18 14:10:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1 false
2 false
3 false
4 in many ways true

2007-06-04 15:49:41 · answer #4 · answered by OldGringo 7 · 0 0

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