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alexander the great was a one of the rulers of greece right???

2007-06-04 03:14:28 · 17 answers · asked by almost17 2 in Arts & Humanities History

17 answers

Yes you are right! Alexander was emperor of Greece.
Alexander was from authentic Macedonia of Greece (Greek- Macedonia). {Not to confuse it with the modern (Slavic/Albanian)Macedonia like some do!!!they are not related at all!}
Alexander (Greek “ΑΛΕΞΑΝΔΡΟΣ” (ALEXANDROS) is considered one of the greatest hero of Greece.
He was the first who managed to unite all the Greek states and build a gigantic Greek Empire which expanded from Greece to India (really big!!). He was the first person who took the title “Emperor of Greece”.
He made his small Greek kingdom of Macedon the most powerful Greek state.
He never lost a battle and he is considered a military genius.
He spread Greek language and Greek culture through out the world paving the way to Christianity.
He was considered from the people of the Persian Empire as a liberator and not a conqueror.
He fused Greek culture with Asian Elements forming the culture that was called Hellenistic (from “Hellenic” meaning “Greek”).
You can have an idea about Alexander if you read the following ancient text:
""But he said, `If I were not Alexandros, I should be Diogenes'; that is to say: `If it were not my purpose to combine barbarian things with things GREEK, to traverse and civilize every every continent, to search out the uttermost parts of land and sea, to push the bounds of Macedonia to the farthest Ocean, and to diseminate and shower the blessings of the GREEK justice and peace over every nation, I should not be content to sit quietly in the luxury of idle power, but I should emulate the frugality of Diogenes. But as things are, forgive me Diogenes, that I imitate Herakles, and emulate Perseus, and follow in the footsteps of Dionysos, the divine author and progenitor of my family, and desire that victorius GREEKS should dance again in India and revive the memory of the Bacchic revels among the savage mountain tribes beyond the Kaukasos...' "
(Plutarchos, On the Fortune of Alexander, 332 a-b)

2007-06-04 06:19:29 · answer #1 · answered by ragzeus 6 · 22 14

the ancient greece wasn't a united nation like others..each place had its own name and people refered to their place as a nation..for example there were the Spartans,the Athenians,the Cretes,the Macedonians and lots of others..greek nations had different cultures and traditions and each one of them believed that deserved to rule everyone else and that's why there used to be millions of fights between greeks..
but when it was for a battle that they had to defend a part of greece from other countries they united and fighted as one..that's why they're all greeks and the historians named them this way..after all they all talked the same language.these information for those who even though they haven't studied anything about the subject,give faulse information..

now to answer your question..Philip II was Alexander's father.at the time he was the king of Macedonia, he made a conference with all the greek kings and all of them decided that he was the best of all to rule them..(except the spartans..)he wanted to expand greece but he was murdered within the year.then even though alexander was still too young,he was justed capable of taking his father's place since he was his son..so greece's king was alexander.he expanded greece,making his father's dream come alive,with many wars and reached the middle of asia where he died from yellow fever.his errants were mainly his sons and even though they gave him their word to continue rule his nation,the nation was far too big and they were far too arrogant to compromise with each other and so the nation's end wasn't far away.

2007-06-08 01:27:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 6 3

He did not expand the Roman empire. He was a Macedonian who took the reigns of power from the Spartans. He unified Greece, and then he invaded and conquered Persia (modern Iran and its territories which included Egypt) and then parts of India. His death was a mystery, and after wards the kingdom fell apart.

2007-06-04 03:35:13 · answer #3 · answered by Sara 3 · 7 8

OMG here we go again with the wanabe modern day Bulgarian macedonians claiming Alexander The Great....

listen all you have to do is look to any history book to tell you that Alexander was a Doric Greek from the northern Greek region of Macedonia...

There were 3 main Greek tribes...

Doric (Macedonian, Spartan..)
Ionian (Athens, Miletus..)
Aolean (Thessaly, Lesbos)

Now as for ruler.. you have to remeber that Greeks respected freedom and did not believe in bowing down to anyone.. Alexander lead the Greeks against Persia but let it be known that no Greek was under compulsion, every Greek city did so under their own free will, except for the Thebans which were conquered by Alexander .. as an example the Spartans decided not to follow alexander on his expedition...

So as ruler.. well you see Greeks never really had a ruler in the true sence of the word.. Alexander was the first to unite all the Hellenic tribes under one goal...

2007-06-04 16:22:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 20 10

yes

2016-05-26 09:37:43 · answer #5 · answered by Vahe 4 · 0 0

Alexander the Great was Macedonian (Ancient Greece).

2007-06-04 03:17:26 · answer #6 · answered by kja63 7 · 20 9

he practically created da empire...

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_the_Great

2007-06-04 06:57:42 · answer #7 · answered by lwm001 2 · 7 3

The way to look at this is that countries did not usually have the names and boundaries they do today.

What we call Greece today was part of Alexander's empire, although he himself was Macedonian, which lies to the north of modern Greece. However, in generic terms, he could be called a ruler of Greece.

2007-06-04 03:46:21 · answer #8 · answered by marguerite L 4 · 6 15

Yes he was ruler of the greek empire and yes he was macedonian but macedonians were and are greeks.FYROM are just slavs and because of that they cannot be macedonians. READ SOME HISTORY PLEASE.

2007-06-04 22:08:25 · answer #9 · answered by Μακεδών 2 · 20 8

Yes. There was no empire before him, he created it by conquering Persia but it didn't last long because he died and then it was split.

2007-06-04 03:18:23 · answer #10 · answered by dimitris k 4 · 17 9

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