I was watching the Yankees vs Red Sox game tonight. The situation of who was batting and who hit it doesn't matter.
There was a pop-fly by a batter, a low blooper that was easily caught by the 3rd baseman and thrown to 1st for the out.
I'm not sure why the ball was still thrown to 1st when the ball was caught. There was a runner at 3rd, though I'm not sure if there were runners at 1st or 2nd, nor the # of outs. I don't think the infield fly rule applies here because my understanding is that the umps would simply call a batter out on an easy pop-fly whether or not the ball is caught. Why is the ball still thrown to 1st in some situations on pop-ups (and the batter still runs to 1st to try to get the hit)?
2007-06-03
16:59:48
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6 answers
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asked by
MinocStriker
2
in
Sports
➔ Baseball
After the 5th inning & before the 8th. I do believe the Yankees were batting and it definately was not a chopper (rewound it several times to make sure). The Yankees had just hit a triple w/ 0 outs and the triple scored 2 runs I believe to tie the game. The Yankees had 3 opportunities to score the runner at 3rd but the pop-fly in question is one of the outs.
I do believe though that the answer of it being done out of instinct & in case the ball is bobbled is probably correct.
2007-06-03
17:19:44 ·
update #1