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Isn't anything to the 0 power equal to 1? Can someone explain why?

2007-06-03 14:48:03 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

You are correct; anything to the power of 0 does equal 1.

Here is a link that explains why:
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.number.to.0power.html

2007-06-03 14:51:12 · answer #1 · answered by Justin 1 · 1 0

X^0 = 1

2007-06-03 21:52:12 · answer #2 · answered by jtgimpy 3 · 0 0

Anything to the power of 0 is 1.

2007-06-03 21:52:02 · answer #3 · answered by Kemmy 6 · 0 0

Quotients of x^n / x^m can be depicted as x^(n - m); An extension of x^0 can be written as x^(n - n), which is also x^n / x^n. Note the numerator and the denominator is the same value, therefore when x^0, x ≠ 0, the quotient value will indeed be 1 (a number divided by itself is 1 if the number is not 0).

2007-06-03 21:54:52 · answer #4 · answered by Alex 4 · 1 0

yes any number except for 0 raised tothe zero power is 1

If you have an exponent fraction that looks like this

5^2 25
---- =---------=1
5^2 25

5^2/5^2= 5^2-2=5^0=1

1=5^2/5^2=5^2-5^2=5^0=1

2007-06-03 23:56:50 · answer #5 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0 0

a^0 = 1
If you take logs of both sides, you get
log(a^0) = log(1)
0*log(a) = log(1)

Since the LSH = 0, we need the RHS = 0, hence it must be log(1).

2007-06-03 21:53:13 · answer #6 · answered by Dr D 7 · 0 0

1. answer

2007-06-03 21:51:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the answer is 1...
i don know why but imy teachers sais so

2007-06-03 21:51:17 · answer #8 · answered by misshahila 2 · 0 0

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