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The answer seems to be either 1/6 or 1/36. My vote would be for 1/6 because there are only 36 different ways the two dice could roll out and of those 36 possible outcomes 6 would contain a pair of the same number.

If you really want to test which answer is correct, I would suggest you roll a pair of dice 100 times and count how many pairs of the same number you get. My guess is you are going to get far more than the 3 pairs suggested by the 1 in 36 probability some people are saying. I bet it will be much closer to 15 to 20 pairs which is consistent with a 1 in 6 probability.

2007-06-02 06:57:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The chances of getting any specific number is 1/6 on any one dice.
The chances of the second dice getting any specific number is also 1/6
the chances of both dice getting any specific number is therefore 1/36

since there are 6 opportunities of getting a pair in the role of a dice. The chances of getting a pair is 6 * 1/36 = 1/6

answer = 1/6

2007-06-02 13:42:20 · answer #2 · answered by telsaar 4 · 0 0

The probability of a number coming up is 1/6 and the probability of the same number coming up in two dice is 1/6 times 1/6 or 1/36

Since there are 6 such number pairs, the probability of any number pair coming up is 1/6

2007-06-02 13:39:14 · answer #3 · answered by Swamy 7 · 0 0

If there's two dice tossed we will have 36 possible result
which are :
( 1 ,1 ) , (1,2) , (1 , 3 ) , ( 1,4 ) , ( 1 , 5 ) , ( 1 , 6 )
( 2 ,1 ) , (2,2) , (2, 3 ) , ( 2,4 ) , ( 2, 5 ) , ( 2 , 6 )
( 3 ,1 ) , (3,2) , (3 , 3 ) , ( 3,4 ) , ( 3 , 5 ) , ( 3 , 6 )
( 4 ,1 ) , (4,2) , (4 , 3 ) , ( 4,4 ) , ( 4, 5 ) , ( 4 , 6 )
( 5 ,1 ) , (5,2) , (5 , 3 ) , ( 5,4 ) , ( 5, 5 ) , ( 5 , 6 )
( 6 ,1 ) , (6,2) , (6 , 3 ) , ( 6,4 ) , ( 6 , 5 ) , ( 6 , 6 )

the pairs of the same numbers are
( 1 ,1 ) , (2,2) , (3 , 3 ) , ( 4,4 ) , ( 5, 5 ) , (6 , 6 )

the probability = 6 / 36 = 1 / 6

2007-06-02 13:56:44 · answer #4 · answered by muhamed a 4 · 0 0

for each dice the probability of getting a number is 1/6. therefore, the probability of two numbers that r the same is 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36

2007-06-02 13:45:42 · answer #5 · answered by mz19 2 · 0 0

Since there are 36 possible outcomes, and 6 of those outcomes are pairs of the same number,

6/36 = 1/6

So, there are 1 out of 6 chances that the number pair will be the same.

2007-06-02 13:39:36 · answer #6 · answered by mattside_bic 2 · 0 0

1/36, if using standard 6-sized dice.

Example:

Lets say we were trying to get 2 3's.
There is a 1/6 chance of getting a 3 in the first toss, and a 1/6 chance in the second toss. So we multiply them together.
1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36

2007-06-02 13:39:20 · answer #7 · answered by cheesysoundeffectz 2 · 0 0

On rolling the first die, there is a 1 in 6 chance of getting any particular outcome. On the second roll, there is also 1 in 6 chance. Taking two rolls and getting the same outcome, it would be one 6th of one 6th or 1 in 36

2007-06-02 13:44:40 · answer #8 · answered by jmdrocks2002 2 · 0 0

If you roll the first die, it will be a certain number.
Whatever that number is, you have a 1 in 6 chance of rolling it with your second die.

answer: 1/6

2007-06-02 14:23:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the possible number of pair is 6x6 = 36

11
22
33
44
55
66

there are 6 favor outcomes out of 36
6/36 = 1/6

2007-06-02 13:38:24 · answer #10 · answered by      7 · 0 1

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