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the political structures of European countries were built on the concept of 'Plato's Utopia' as claimed by will durant in his book 'the story of philosophy'? was that the factor responsible for Europe's economic prosperity?

or was it industrialization that was responsible for their economic progress ?

2007-06-02 06:06:34 · 2 answers · asked by x 2 in Arts & Humanities History

thanks frantz.. i meant republic. thanks for the correction.

2007-06-02 09:08:11 · update #1

2 answers

A bit of both as it took the proper management to harness systems related to industrialism.

2007-06-02 06:10:20 · answer #1 · answered by eugene65ca 6 · 1 0

First, 'Utopia' is by Thomas More, who wrote 2000 years after Plato. You should be asking about Plato's Republic.

Plato's Republic described a society that was rigorously stratified with a very powerful ruling class. That's consistent with most pre-modern European governments, but it's also consistent with non-European governments and with the states that existed before Plato wrote.

I really don't see much in the political structures of Europe that derive from Plato. Where he has had an effect, I believe it has been largely a negative effect, providing intellectual rationalizations for bad policies and bad governments.

I think that Europe's economic success was due to technology, first maritime improvements that made more extensive trade possible, then industrialization that increased worker productivity.

2007-06-02 15:31:52 · answer #2 · answered by A M Frantz 7 · 1 0

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