2007-06-02 00:47:50 · 6 answers · asked by HPiramal 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Yes. In the Middle Ages, and more recently, determining the most 'legitimate' heirs to the throne took a lot of work on occasion! England ended up taking on kings from Scotland and Germany. But there is a direct, known and traceable linegae from William I to Lizzy II.
2007-06-02 01:32:49 · answer #1 · answered by llordlloyd 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes, she is. Some people consider a descent to be direct only if it is always through the male line. However, despite the different dynastic names, there is a continuous line and in fact it goes back to the earliest Anglo-Saxon kings as well.
There are several websites and many books which have genealogical tables of the royal family.
There are probably also about 10 million or more people descended from William the Conqueror alive today in addition to the Queen.
2007-06-02 17:57:31 · answer #2 · answered by marguerite L 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Elizabeth II is a direct descendant (not always in the male line) of Edward I, by several different routes which makes her anything from the 18 greats to the 23 greats granddaughter. Exactly how close you are would depend on how many generations from Edward I you are. As far as I can see, Edward I had four grand-daughters called Margaret - which one is your ancestor?
2016-05-19 02:22:35 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, there have been interruptions in the ruling families several times. James VI of Scotland became James I of England, and the coat of arms of Scotland was added to that of England. William and Mary were from the Netherlands. George I was of German ancestry.
2007-06-02 03:20:52 · answer #4 · answered by miyuki & kyojin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, she claims to be, but going back 1000 years in time everyone is related to everyone else.
2007-06-02 01:31:09 · answer #5 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Through a very, very, very circuitous route. Yes.
2007-06-02 01:10:35 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋