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If that's the case, HOW does actuality precede potentiality ? Does anybody have any examples ?

2007-06-01 10:37:08 · 4 answers · asked by I_hate_being_single 3 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

4 answers

In matter or spirit? In human terms actuality supersedes potentiality.

2007-06-01 11:20:37 · answer #1 · answered by Mr. Wizard 4 · 0 0

Well chronologically no, as potentiality is essentially the possibilities inherent in the situation. The actuality is what it already is at the moment. However the actuality stems from from potentialities that existed before the actuality and then became actuality through events. So i suppose potentiality comes first but actuality had to start things off. Something like that.
Edit: To guru, it would take the actuality of you being in a position to be hit by a car or find a hundred dollars for the likely potentiality to exist of course if i run into a wall a million times i could on the millionth time go right through it, but it isnt very likely.

2007-06-01 10:44:06 · answer #2 · answered by Locke 1 · 0 0

These two things are not interdependent. It is flawed reasoning or illogic to assume that one leads to the next.

I potentially could have been hit by a car on my way home today. I actually wasn't. Potentiality preceded actuality.
I potentially could have been shot. I potentially could have been mugged. I could have potentianlly been murdered. I could potentially have found $100 on the street.

2007-06-01 10:56:28 · answer #3 · answered by guru 7 · 0 0

things move from potentiality to actuality. unless it was in actuality already, meaning that it was once in potentiality then actualized, then i can see actuality preceding potentiality. but, from what i have read and know, it's:

potentiality > actuality >potentiality...and so on.

i may be wrong since i haven't read much phil but that makes the most sense to me because how would you explain something already in actuality without referencing potentiality?

2007-06-01 10:47:11 · answer #4 · answered by Flabbergasted 5 · 0 0

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