English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

For std normal distribution, what is the probability that z is greater than 1.75?

2007-05-31 14:03:24 · 4 answers · asked by wonderland 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

On a z based normal distribution (the standard normal) z = 0 on the mean. And one standard deviation from that mean is z = +/- 1. z = +/- 2 is two SD's on either side and z = +/- 3 is three SD's.

Now, we all memorize the following because it'll be helpful:

P(-1 < z < 1) ~ 2/3
P(-2 < z < 2) ~ .95
P(-3 < z < 3) ~ .999

So z > 1.75 puts the z score between 1 and 2 SD's on the high (plus) side of the mean, the center of the probability distribution curve. That means P(z > 1.75) = 1 - P(z <= 0) + P(0 < z < 1) + P(1 <= z <= 1.75). At this point I can hear you say "Huh?"

This would be easier if Yahoo Answers allowed graphics. But picture this...the entire area under the standard z curve equals 1.000; that represents a probability of 1.000 What that says is that there is a 100% certainty that z will fall under that curve somewhere.

OK, then, since the curve is absolutely symmetrical around the mean, that also means that all the area under the minus side of z = 0 is 1/2 half the area. Or P(z <= 0) = .5 and that's the first term after the 1 in the equation I posited earlier. The second term P(0 < z < 1) is the span of one SD on the plus side of the mean. Earler we memorized that P(-1 < z < 1) ~ .68; so half that 2 SD span would give us P(0 < z < 1) = 1/2 .68 = .34.

Were getting there, now we have P(z <= 0) + P(0 < z < 1) + P(1 <= z <= 1.75). = .5 + .34 + P(1 <= z <= 1.75). = .84 + P(1 <= z <= 1.75). Unfortunately, I've not memorized the probability value for this last term; so you'll have to look it up. With that last term, we now have all the area under the distribution curve at or below z = 1.75. But that's the complement of what you really want which is the area under the curve above z > 1.75. And that's when we invoke the fact that the entire area is 1.000; so that means that P(z > 1.75) + P(z <= 1.75) = 1.00; so that P(z > 1.75) = 1 - P(z <= 1.75) and we just did the P(z <= 1.75) probabilities.

2007-05-31 14:47:52 · answer #1 · answered by oldprof 7 · 0 0

there is mostly a danger of having an STD! i'd recommend going to a medical institution and being examined. the probabilities would be low yet some STDs alongside with HPV are so plenty extra basic than human beings think of you will properly be contaminated very certainly! in actuality in would properly be contaminated via any touch with the genitalia no longer basically via intercourse! considering the fact that adult males can't be examined for HPV they might no longer assist you be attentive to in the event that they have it or no longer. it is significant you spot a doctor and be examined. additionally locate out the data. the internet isn't the best source of records each and all of the time.

2016-11-03 06:25:30 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Plz post this question on tutorbuddy dot org I will answer as soon as you post

2007-05-31 14:06:44 · answer #3 · answered by Tim G 1 · 0 1

just look it up on a chart

2007-05-31 14:06:55 · answer #4 · answered by Jack Flash 4 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers