I use to know this stuff...but I never used it so I forgot...
is it 1000?
could you please tell me how to figure this out so I won't have to bother asking again.
thank you so much!
2007-05-31 10:22:17 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
convert percent to decimal
40% = .4
of means to multiply
.4 x 2500 = 1000
you're correct
2007-05-31 10:25:20 · answer #1 · answered by 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
40% of 2500
2/5 * 2500/1= 5000/5=1000 yes it is 1000
2007-05-31 17:27:28 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Everyone else has already given you the answer, so I'll just give you my set up.
You can use a porportion.
40/100=x/2500
you can simplify 40/100 into 2/5 so
2/5=x/2500
and since the means equal the extremes, you can rewrire it as: 5000=5x
you can then divide both sides by 5 to reach:
1000=x or x=1000
So as others have mentioned, yes, you are correct.
2007-05-31 17:33:14 · answer #3 · answered by locomonohijo 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes it is 1000!
2500 x .40 = 1000
goodluck on your course
2007-05-31 17:39:47 · answer #4 · answered by bEiNg DiScIpLiNeD 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
First: convert the percentage into a decimal.
40% > 0.40
Sec: "of" means multiply - multiply the decimal with the whole number.
(0.40)(2500) = 1,000
2007-05-31 19:05:46 · answer #5 · answered by ♪♥Annie♥♪ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
40% of 2500 is
0.40 times 2500 = 1000
Or this way:
10% is 250
20% is 500
40% is 1000
(double each time)
2007-05-31 17:26:56 · answer #6 · answered by morningfoxnorth 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
2500 * .40 = 1000.
50% would be:
2500 * .50 = 1250.
Just multiply by the number your trying to get the percentage of. Sounds like you did it right.
2007-05-31 17:30:13 · answer #7 · answered by DC2000 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
0.4*2500 = so, yes the answer is 1000............
2007-05-31 17:26:52 · answer #8 · answered by Darren 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋