2007-05-28 22:56:45 · 8 answers · asked by aashidesai 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
This doesn't make any sense.
2007-05-28 23:06:25 · answer #1 · answered by psbhowmick 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
When you say "/n", I'm going to assume you mean "not equal".
As already pointed out, the range of sin(x) is (-1) to 1. that is
-1 <= sin(x) <= 1
This is because the functions of sine and cosine are based on the unit circle, which has a radius of 1. For that reason, the most sine can be *is* 1.
2007-05-28 23:11:23 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This does noy involve much of trigonometry knowledge. It requires depth of the technique of cancelation
Let me show u how
ur question is
sin x/n
cancel the n in the denominator and that in the numerator we get
1*six
=six
=6
2007-05-29 01:06:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin x/n =6
to prove this we have to go beyond the mathematical definitions of trignometrical functions.
dont talk abt limits of sin(x) here as the question is also beyond limits.....
just cancel n from numeratot and deno. in LHS
and u get six=6
LHS=RHS hence proved
2007-05-29 00:32:35 · answer #4 · answered by sid 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No way. The range of the sine function is [-1, 1] so sin of **anything** can't be 6.
Doug
2007-05-28 23:05:49 · answer #5 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This question makes no sense without some additional information.
2007-05-28 22:59:45 · answer #6 · answered by factor_of_2 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
cancell the n to get six = 6
2007-05-28 23:00:38 · answer #7 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
You mistyped your question
Ana
2007-05-29 02:28:18 · answer #8 · answered by MathTutor 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋