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E.g., would they have eventually invaded us?

Note: Not exactly sure if 'Axis' is an applicable term for our adversaries in WW1 but you know what I mean.

2007-05-28 10:39:09 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

Some of you seem to have WW1 confused with WW2...

2007-05-28 10:48:29 · update #1

And UK confused with US...

2007-05-28 10:54:15 · update #2

16 answers

it is a fair question james and all are welcome,what happened in the good old days as MY son once said at the age of 6 to his dad and he is now 19.. we knew very little about what was being planned abroad untill it was broadcast on the radio,these days with the age of internet..we know before the governments what is happening and that is a good thing .........to answer your question and respecting anybody who was involved or their families in those wars i do not think the british people would be any different now since then....in fact i know it ........have a nice day as the yanks like to say

2007-05-28 11:08:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nope. The royals power is an illusion, the government and parliament is where the decisions are made, the royals keep quiet and do as they are told. The world would not have been a better place because Hitler would not have kept his promise not meddle with the British Empire. If you want hypothetical situations, a more interesting scenario is if the western allies should have stopped Russia invading the west by accepting conditional surrender from Germany. Thereby freeing German divisions in the west to fight in the east and sending a clear signal that Bolshevism should not extend into the west.

2016-05-20 00:36:19 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

The UK entered the First World war against the Central Powers (Germany, Austria-Hugary and Italy; properly named the Triple Alliance since the UK was part of the Triple Entente) because the German army invaded Belgium through the Schlieffen plan, and because Engalnd was forced to follow up on its promise that it would protect Belgian independence (as part of the Treaty of 1839). If Britain had not declared war on Germany at that point, it meant they were not willing to honour that treaty, but war would of have come against Britain as well, evenutally. Wilhelm II of Germany had been building up his navy for the exact intention to counter British supremacy of the seas, and that naval arms race had been one of the causes of friction between the two before the war. Germany intended to sweep through Belguim and break French resistance and focus its power against Russia in the East, but I am sure that, if Russia would of have been conquered, they would of have turned back West and attempted to cross the English Channel. After all, how inviting is it to conquer a nation that had withstood all onslaught since 1066 and the Normans? Quite!

2007-05-28 12:27:19 · answer #3 · answered by europa 2 · 0 0

The first WW was mainly lead couse of the lack of colonyes and the economical tension that coused. The Central powers Italy, Germany, The otoman empire(Turkie),Austria-Hungary. Had no realy valuable colonyes, and non left to colonize. So they felt the need to rearrange the worlds colonies, to put it nicely. The British empire would have been involved for sure, couse it had the most colonyes. So the British involvement in WW1 was unevadable.

2007-05-28 10:57:17 · answer #4 · answered by Csaba 2 · 0 0

Germany in 1914 was a nation seeking to challenge the British Empire and the Royal Navy. There would probably have been some incident sooner or later which have led to war

2007-05-28 17:14:52 · answer #5 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0 0

The "Axis Powers" is a term applied to our enemies of WWII, not WWI. Sooner or later we would have become involved because of the Germans interferring with our european trade and shipping. They were using U-Boats to interdict shipping from the U. S. to Britain. It is unlikely that Germany would have attempted to invade the U. S., but they would have sought to limit our influence in the european region.

2007-05-28 10:49:31 · answer #6 · answered by ekil422 4 · 0 0

I doubt it!

I think that the furtherest thing from the Axis Powers mind was remotely thinking about invading the United States!

2007-05-28 10:51:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Most certainly, Sir. The English were incredibly crafty in the way that they held off the German advances into their country. Basically, the english broke the code of the german Luftwafte, or airforce. Every single german air-strike on Britain (Which was the only way to subdue the island without shipping troops to the heavily fortified docking area. Not to mention the incredible currents of the English Channel, which would basically eqate to the germans losing their troops if they tried a land assault on the island britain.)

They broke the code, and intercepted the germans at every single opportunity they had. They always had the heads up, and suffered very little losses because they knew where the germans were, and the best position to own them in aerial combat. They held them off for a good six months, which is six months America used to make up it's mind as to whether or not to join the war.

2007-05-28 10:44:57 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Yes. Hitler within Nazi Germany would want to spread his 'power' across the world to unite it under the Third Reich(spelling?).

The fact that the UK was in World War I wouldn't be the reason, however. That was due to a whole bunch of 'if you get attacked, i'll attack them with you' agreements made between multiple countries, and was sparked with the asassination of some leader, not sure which.

2007-05-28 10:43:50 · answer #9 · answered by bgamer1 2 · 0 2

Probably not. The Germans had no reason to antagonize the US. They already had enough to contend with in Europe in the early 1900's


JZ

2007-05-28 10:47:40 · answer #10 · answered by zinn@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0 0

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