It's terrible what happened in the past, but we can't make up for it by doing stuff like that. And even if you made some black family the owner of a rich white family's company, that doesn't mean they will necessarily be able to maintain the company. The unfortunate thing is that many minorities lack the education to succeed in ventures such as that, and if we don't fix the educational system there is no way to fix anything else.
2007-05-28 16:42:43
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answer #1
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answered by tertiahibernica 3
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Look what happened in South Africa. They kicked the white owners off their ( albeit maybe ill-gotten ) properties and gave it away to individual black farmers , but now the blacks can't even grow enough for themselves, much less for the whole country. The Afrikaners are probably just shaking their heads. Sure, they may have been autocratic and imperialistic, but they had the resources and equipment to improve lives, and it just proves that "justice" won't make you less hungry, if you don't know how to run a farm or manage it, or even how to farm correctly, and with no equipment. They've been trying to lure the whites back to help, but so far, what's their incentive? Let the blacks eat crow. They sowed their own "freedom", now reap the benefits. I'll be a bitter harvest for years.
2007-05-28 13:48:13
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Perhaps we should look further and charge the British for allowing slavery to come to the shores, or, perhaps the Portuguese for starting the trade? Or.. the African chiefs tribe that gave the first slave to the Portuguese captain and started the trade? Maybe blacks should get their reparations from the Africans?
Hmm, as I think it was farakan .. but I am probably wrong .. , who says that the Egyptians were actually black and it is racism that hides this fact. Well, does that mean that the Jews should get reparations from the blacks then?
2007-05-28 14:23:18
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answer #3
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answered by Dance With Me 1
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No.
That would be evicting the white family for an unjust cause.
Aren't affirmative action privileges enough to make up to the slave descendants for the exploitation of their ancestors?
2007-05-28 13:43:46
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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no because neither decendents are the ones who either brought the slaves or were slaves. To do this would make the passers of the law as bad as the original people who brought slaves over.
2007-05-28 13:39:01
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answer #5
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answered by jen 2
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Very few slaves were brought to work in factories. They were bought to work in farm labor. The plantations are gone. The factories have moved overseas. I neither was a slave or did I own any. No matter what your ancestors did, you have to walk in your own shoes.
2007-05-28 13:50:04
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answer #6
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answered by cece 4
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Answer: No
Question for you: When do you want this law of causality to stop? Say your great great grandfather murdered someone in 1901. Should that person's great great granddaughter be able to take you to court and take your property because of the act of your Great great Grandfather committed?
In this country the Constitution says that you only have a right to take property if you were the injured party.
2007-05-28 13:47:58
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No blacks today were slaves, and no whites today owned slaves.
But if blacks have this mentality where they want to be equal and still demand reparations, then whites need to start suing for back rent.....
2007-05-28 13:43:31
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answer #8
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answered by em3boone 1
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No they do not deserve anything for what happened to their ancestor perpetrated by the white persons ancestors
2007-05-28 13:46:13
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answer #9
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answered by mnwomen 7
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Nope. That happend over 100 years ago. Get over it.
2007-05-28 13:42:34
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answer #10
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answered by That One Dude 3
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