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2007-05-28 01:19:09 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

8 answers

I think that Lord Diplock in his judgment in Sweet v Parsley points to one: http://law.ato.gov.au/atolaw/view.htm?dbwidetocone=05%3ALRP%3AUnited%20Kingdom%3A1969%3ASweet%20v%20Parsley%3A%2306%23Judgment%20by%20Lord%20Diplock%3B

"A more helpful exposition of the nature of mens rea in both common law and statutory offences is to be found in the judgment of Stephen J in R v Tolson ((1889) 23 QBD 168 at p 187, [1886-90] All ER Rep 26 at p 37.):


"The full definition of every crime contains expressly or by implication a proposition as to a state of mind. Therefore, if the mental element of any conduct alleged to be a crime is proved to have been absent in any given case, the crime so defined has not been committed; or, again, if a crime is fully defined, nothing amounts to that crime which does not satisfy that definition."

Where the crime consists of doing an act which is prohibited by statute, the proposition as to the state of mind of the doer which is contained in the full definition of the crime must be ascertained from the words and subject-matter of the statute. The proposition, as Stephen J pointed out ((1889) 23 QBD at p 187, [1886-90] All ER Rep at p 37.), may be stated explicitly by the use of such qualifying adverbs as "maliciously", "fraudulently", "negligently" or "knowingly"-expressions which in relation to different kinds of conduct may call for judicial exegesis. And even without such adverbs the words descriptive of the prohibited act may themselves connote the presence of a particular mental element. Thus, where the prohibited conduct consists in permitting a particular thing to be done the word "permit" connotes at least knowledge or reasonable grounds for suspicion on the part of the permittor that the thing will be done and an unwillingness to use means available to him to prevent it ....."

2007-05-28 04:12:58 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 1 0

Generally no...a marraige mustr be ended before a new marriage began...the only exceptions are the absence exceptions...when the spouse is gone and hasn't been heard from for a certain period depending on your state laws...usually 7 years or the death exception when your spouse has died or you reasonably believe he has died considering the circumstances....your husband was in the world trade center in 9/11 and you haven't heard from him since.

2007-05-28 08:32:31 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. Luv 5 · 1 0

Convert to Mormonism or some other religion that allows more than one spouse and then rely on the new laws of human rights

2007-05-28 08:23:15 · answer #3 · answered by Dellboy from UK 3 · 1 1

under religious beliefs, mormons are serial biggamists, and conduct their own wedding ceremonies, and the registry offices have to register it

2007-05-28 13:24:28 · answer #4 · answered by the mofo 4 · 1 0

Well - you could get a legal divorce - marry another one and all live together.

2007-05-28 08:21:37 · answer #5 · answered by Moondog 7 · 1 0

I wouldn't think so. If there were, certain persons would not have gone to prison.

2007-05-28 08:28:32 · answer #6 · answered by james d 2 · 1 0

You bet!

2007-05-28 08:21:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

No.

2007-05-28 08:22:10 · answer #8 · answered by regerugged 7 · 0 2

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