Is it 1/20e
I just want to get this right as its for a proof
2007-05-27 23:18:38 · 5 answers · asked by hey mickey you're so fine 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
e^(-1) / 20
= (1/e) / 20
= (1/e) x 1/20
= 1/ (20e)
2007-05-27 23:29:49 · answer #1 · answered by fred 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yup, that's right! the answer is 1/20e.
e has a negative exponent so u have to bring it down.
u will get 1/e.
now, it is (1/e)/20. as u know, when dividing fractions, u multiply the numerator with the reciprocal of the denominator.
u will come up with 1/e * 1/20
multiply the numerators: 1*1, and the denominators: e*20.
the answer would be 1/20e.
2007-05-28 07:48:23 · answer #2 · answered by Kasparov 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 / (20 e) is correct.
2007-05-28 09:55:12 · answer #3 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Multiply e^(-1) / 20 by e/e (i.e the number 1).
2007-05-28 06:23:30 · answer #4 · answered by nivik 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
e(^-1)/20 = (1/e)/20
L.H.S = (1/e)*(1/20)
L.H.S = 1/(e*20)
L.H.S = 1/20e
Thus L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence proved
2007-05-28 06:22:40 · answer #5 · answered by sriram t 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋