It is difficult to explain it to able understand more.
2007-05-27 20:22:19 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Generally speaking that question doesn't makes sense, however, for those who know Spain like I do, it can make a lot of sense. As you may know, Spain is composed of several old kingdoms or regions unified in 1492. Two of those regions, the Basque Country and Catalunya shared it's territory with France, that is, from both sides of the border there is only one Basque Country and only one Catalunya with their own language, basque and catalán, and their own traditions to this day. If you cross the border in northeast Spain and ask a french on the other side what is he and what does he speaks, he will tell you "I am a catalán and I speak my language, catalán."
2007-05-28 14:43:06 · answer #1 · answered by Heterónimo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are they ?
The only thing I can find to support your analogy is that they are forever squabbling.
Otherwise their cultures and traditions are entirely different.
2007-05-27 21:26:19 · answer #2 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's a point of view.
2007-05-27 20:37:12 · answer #3 · answered by Erik Van Thienen 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋