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2007-05-27 17:57:50 · 5 answers · asked by covini1 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

Start with pythagoras' theorem

opp^2 + adj^2 = hyp^2

Divide throughout by hyp^2 to get
sin^2 + cos^2 = 1

2007-05-27 18:04:26 · answer #1 · answered by Dr D 7 · 3 0

Draw a circle of radius 1. Let P be a point on the circle and O the origin. the angle OP makes with positive x axis, call it a.
The co-ordinates of P are (cos a, sin a). Now use the pythogorean theorem.
hypotenuse ^2 = x^2 + y ^ 2 = cos^2 a + sin ^ a.
but we have a unit circle, so hypotenuse = 1
substitute and get the desired result.

2007-05-27 18:04:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Use a theoretical right angle triangle of length x, height y and hypotenuse h.

Now we know that a^2 + b^2 = c^2
therefore x^2 + y^2 = h^2

now x = h cos(theta)
y = h sin(theta)

h^2 cos^2(theta) + h^2 sin^2(theta) = h^2

divide by h^2

cos^2(theta) + sin^2(theta) = 1

and thus proved!!

2007-05-27 18:26:05 · answer #3 · answered by theanswerman 3 · 0 0

Pythagorean Theorem.

That is just how sin and cosine are defined. Use the unit circle.

2007-05-27 18:01:41 · answer #4 · answered by Aadi C 2 · 0 0

Consider cos Ø and sin Ø where:-
cos Ø = x / r
sin Ø = y / r
cos² Ø + sin² Ø = x² / r² + y² / r²
cos² Ø + sin² Ø = (x² + y²) / r² = r² / r² = 1

2007-05-28 02:52:39 · answer #5 · answered by Como 7 · 0 0

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