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which if i'm wrong correct me came from the origional roman laugnage, what happened to there origional tounge ( Spanish and portugees) and were the french not a germanic tribe so why don't they speak like germans?

2007-05-27 03:48:24 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Other - Cultures & Groups

6 answers

I can give you the portuguese example, that is similar to the other latin based languages. When the Romans invaded the Iberian Peninsula (Now Portugal and Spain) there were several tribes of celts, sometimes called the celtiberos, thought to be the original celts that after migrated to the north of Europe. They spoke a language that should have been related to todays gaelic but almost all traces of it are now gone, although there are many words in portuguese in spanish that come from the arab since the Peninsula was ruled by the arabs from the VIII century AD to the XVI century when the moorish kingdom of Granada in the south of Spain fell. The exception in the Peninsula is the basque, the mysterious language of the Basque Country (north of Spain south of France) that some believe to be the original celt.

2007-05-27 13:42:55 · answer #1 · answered by Heterónimo 7 · 0 0

When Rome lost control of the area now known as France around 400 AD in part due to the invasion of Germanic tribes, the local people we not removed. They retained their language, with some adjustments. The French population in say 1000 AD would not have been considered germanic.
French is also a romance language.
I think you have mis-connected some of the dots. Ususally the local languages were "Romanized" ie converted to something closer to Latin and to phase out the other local dialects by creating an "offical" or common language.
Good question. The history of languages is very interesting and sometimes a mystery. Look up the history of Finnish and Hungarian.

2007-05-27 04:09:35 · answer #2 · answered by Gatsby216 7 · 0 0

The French colonized what some people wrongly call "Latin u . s . a . of america" too. Latin = prompted with the help of the Romans. those international places are, specially: Portugal, Spain, Italy, France and Romania. The Romans did no longer impact South and/or critical u . s . a . of america! It does not make experience to declare they're Latins. India became taken with the help of the English (however the Portuguese have been people who got here upon it), England has Germanic impact, do you with the help of any risk say Indians are Germanic? i do no longer think of so... by way of fact, in basic terms like asserting South and critical individuals are Latin, it does not make experience.

2016-10-06 03:17:26 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

latin was introduced to spain and portugal by the romans every language being spoken in modern day is a a jumbled up mix of a lot of languages

2007-05-27 04:21:11 · answer #4 · answered by polly 3 · 0 0

It was lost when they were conquered by the Romans.I don't think that the french are a Germanic people.

2007-05-27 03:59:16 · answer #5 · answered by Mimi 2 · 0 1

You should go to school first and learn how to write

2007-05-27 04:36:28 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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